Are the endpoints of the domain of a function counted as critical points? Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 23:30 UTC (7:30pm US/Eastern)Critical points for undefined fraction on closed intervalCritical points when gradient doesn't existA silly problem on critical points?What is the definition of a Critical Point?Is it correct to say all extrema happen at critical points but not all critical points are extrema?Critical Point when not in domain of $f(x)$How do I find and classify the critical points of $x^2 sin (frac 1x)$Definition of Critical Point at endpointsFinding the derivative of function with domain empty setDetermine critical points of 2 variable functions without 2nd derivative test
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Are the endpoints of the domain of a function counted as critical points?
Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 23:30 UTC (7:30pm US/Eastern)Critical points for undefined fraction on closed intervalCritical points when gradient doesn't existA silly problem on critical points?What is the definition of a Critical Point?Is it correct to say all extrema happen at critical points but not all critical points are extrema?Critical Point when not in domain of $f(x)$How do I find and classify the critical points of $x^2 sin (frac 1x)$Definition of Critical Point at endpointsFinding the derivative of function with domain empty setDetermine critical points of 2 variable functions without 2nd derivative test
$begingroup$
Do the end points of a domain come under critical points ?
I know we say critical point is a point where the derivative is zero or the derivative doesn't exist.
For ex:-
$$ f:[0,pi] rightarrow [-1,1] , f(x) = sin(x)$$
Does this have 1 critical point or 3 critical points(0 and $pi$ included) ?
NOTE:- This question is limited to only Single Variable Functions.Although I really would love an insight to this for Multivariable as well.
calculus
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Do the end points of a domain come under critical points ?
I know we say critical point is a point where the derivative is zero or the derivative doesn't exist.
For ex:-
$$ f:[0,pi] rightarrow [-1,1] , f(x) = sin(x)$$
Does this have 1 critical point or 3 critical points(0 and $pi$ included) ?
NOTE:- This question is limited to only Single Variable Functions.Although I really would love an insight to this for Multivariable as well.
calculus
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Do the end points of a domain come under critical points ?
I know we say critical point is a point where the derivative is zero or the derivative doesn't exist.
For ex:-
$$ f:[0,pi] rightarrow [-1,1] , f(x) = sin(x)$$
Does this have 1 critical point or 3 critical points(0 and $pi$ included) ?
NOTE:- This question is limited to only Single Variable Functions.Although I really would love an insight to this for Multivariable as well.
calculus
$endgroup$
Do the end points of a domain come under critical points ?
I know we say critical point is a point where the derivative is zero or the derivative doesn't exist.
For ex:-
$$ f:[0,pi] rightarrow [-1,1] , f(x) = sin(x)$$
Does this have 1 critical point or 3 critical points(0 and $pi$ included) ?
NOTE:- This question is limited to only Single Variable Functions.Although I really would love an insight to this for Multivariable as well.
calculus
calculus
edited 4 hours ago
Michael Rybkin
4,504522
4,504522
asked 4 hours ago
rajdeep dhingrarajdeep dhingra
405
405
add a comment |
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Yes, the function has 3 critical numbers. One is where the derivative of the function $f(x)=sinx, xin[0,pi]$ is zero and the other two happen to be the endpoints $x=0$ and $x=pi$ because the function $f(x)=sinx, xin[0,pi]$ is non-differentiable at those points.
Do you remember what it means for a function to be differentiable at a point? The function has to have a derivative at that point. What is the derivative of the function $f(x)=sinx, xin[0,pi]$ at $x=0$? Well, it should be:
$$
lim_xto0fracsinx-sin0x-0=lim_xto0fracsinxx
$$
Which is nothing more than two one-sided limits (if those two limits exist and are equal to each other, the limit itself exists):
$$
lim_xto0^-fracsinxx, lim_xto0^+fracsinxx
$$
But the first of those two limits for all intents and purposes is nonexistent because all x values that lie to the left of $0$ are not in the domain of the function $f(x)=sinx, xin[0,pi]$. For a limit to exist, you need two one-sided limits. But you've got only one! Thus, the derivative at $x=0$ does not exist which makes it a critical number. The exact same idea applies to the other endpoint.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I get your logic. But don't we have a definition for derivative at end points. We only take one sided derivatives at the end points. Do you have any book/source to back up your answer ? Thank you for your help
$endgroup$
– rajdeep dhingra
4 hours ago
$begingroup$
Well, you can look it up on Wikipedia: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Differentiable_function Wikipedia is more or less a reliable and authoritative source of information when it comes to mathematics.
$endgroup$
– Michael Rybkin
4 hours ago
$begingroup$
They have mentioned on that Wikipedia page that , the they are taking in an open interval U. Whereas what I am asking here is a closed interval case.
$endgroup$
– rajdeep dhingra
4 hours ago
$begingroup$
It says quite clearly at the beginning of the second paragraph: More generally, if $x_0$ is a point in the domain of a function $f$, then $f$ is said to be differentiable at $x_0$ if the derivative $f '(x_0)$ exists. It follows that if the point $x_0$ is in the domain of the function and the derivative $f '(x_0)$ does not exist, then the function is non-differentiable at that point.
$endgroup$
– Michael Rybkin
4 hours ago
$begingroup$
To put it simply, a derivative is basically a formula for the slope of the tangent line to a curve. If there is no curve to speak of to the left of a point, there cannot be a tangle line at that point.
$endgroup$
– Michael Rybkin
4 hours ago
|
show 4 more comments
$begingroup$
$$f'(x) = cos(x) = 0 iff x = fracpi2$$
The function $f$ has only one critical point, since the derivative ($f'(x) = cos(x)$) exists at the endpoints. ($0$ and $pi$.)
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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2 Answers
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2 Answers
2
active
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$begingroup$
Yes, the function has 3 critical numbers. One is where the derivative of the function $f(x)=sinx, xin[0,pi]$ is zero and the other two happen to be the endpoints $x=0$ and $x=pi$ because the function $f(x)=sinx, xin[0,pi]$ is non-differentiable at those points.
Do you remember what it means for a function to be differentiable at a point? The function has to have a derivative at that point. What is the derivative of the function $f(x)=sinx, xin[0,pi]$ at $x=0$? Well, it should be:
$$
lim_xto0fracsinx-sin0x-0=lim_xto0fracsinxx
$$
Which is nothing more than two one-sided limits (if those two limits exist and are equal to each other, the limit itself exists):
$$
lim_xto0^-fracsinxx, lim_xto0^+fracsinxx
$$
But the first of those two limits for all intents and purposes is nonexistent because all x values that lie to the left of $0$ are not in the domain of the function $f(x)=sinx, xin[0,pi]$. For a limit to exist, you need two one-sided limits. But you've got only one! Thus, the derivative at $x=0$ does not exist which makes it a critical number. The exact same idea applies to the other endpoint.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I get your logic. But don't we have a definition for derivative at end points. We only take one sided derivatives at the end points. Do you have any book/source to back up your answer ? Thank you for your help
$endgroup$
– rajdeep dhingra
4 hours ago
$begingroup$
Well, you can look it up on Wikipedia: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Differentiable_function Wikipedia is more or less a reliable and authoritative source of information when it comes to mathematics.
$endgroup$
– Michael Rybkin
4 hours ago
$begingroup$
They have mentioned on that Wikipedia page that , the they are taking in an open interval U. Whereas what I am asking here is a closed interval case.
$endgroup$
– rajdeep dhingra
4 hours ago
$begingroup$
It says quite clearly at the beginning of the second paragraph: More generally, if $x_0$ is a point in the domain of a function $f$, then $f$ is said to be differentiable at $x_0$ if the derivative $f '(x_0)$ exists. It follows that if the point $x_0$ is in the domain of the function and the derivative $f '(x_0)$ does not exist, then the function is non-differentiable at that point.
$endgroup$
– Michael Rybkin
4 hours ago
$begingroup$
To put it simply, a derivative is basically a formula for the slope of the tangent line to a curve. If there is no curve to speak of to the left of a point, there cannot be a tangle line at that point.
$endgroup$
– Michael Rybkin
4 hours ago
|
show 4 more comments
$begingroup$
Yes, the function has 3 critical numbers. One is where the derivative of the function $f(x)=sinx, xin[0,pi]$ is zero and the other two happen to be the endpoints $x=0$ and $x=pi$ because the function $f(x)=sinx, xin[0,pi]$ is non-differentiable at those points.
Do you remember what it means for a function to be differentiable at a point? The function has to have a derivative at that point. What is the derivative of the function $f(x)=sinx, xin[0,pi]$ at $x=0$? Well, it should be:
$$
lim_xto0fracsinx-sin0x-0=lim_xto0fracsinxx
$$
Which is nothing more than two one-sided limits (if those two limits exist and are equal to each other, the limit itself exists):
$$
lim_xto0^-fracsinxx, lim_xto0^+fracsinxx
$$
But the first of those two limits for all intents and purposes is nonexistent because all x values that lie to the left of $0$ are not in the domain of the function $f(x)=sinx, xin[0,pi]$. For a limit to exist, you need two one-sided limits. But you've got only one! Thus, the derivative at $x=0$ does not exist which makes it a critical number. The exact same idea applies to the other endpoint.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I get your logic. But don't we have a definition for derivative at end points. We only take one sided derivatives at the end points. Do you have any book/source to back up your answer ? Thank you for your help
$endgroup$
– rajdeep dhingra
4 hours ago
$begingroup$
Well, you can look it up on Wikipedia: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Differentiable_function Wikipedia is more or less a reliable and authoritative source of information when it comes to mathematics.
$endgroup$
– Michael Rybkin
4 hours ago
$begingroup$
They have mentioned on that Wikipedia page that , the they are taking in an open interval U. Whereas what I am asking here is a closed interval case.
$endgroup$
– rajdeep dhingra
4 hours ago
$begingroup$
It says quite clearly at the beginning of the second paragraph: More generally, if $x_0$ is a point in the domain of a function $f$, then $f$ is said to be differentiable at $x_0$ if the derivative $f '(x_0)$ exists. It follows that if the point $x_0$ is in the domain of the function and the derivative $f '(x_0)$ does not exist, then the function is non-differentiable at that point.
$endgroup$
– Michael Rybkin
4 hours ago
$begingroup$
To put it simply, a derivative is basically a formula for the slope of the tangent line to a curve. If there is no curve to speak of to the left of a point, there cannot be a tangle line at that point.
$endgroup$
– Michael Rybkin
4 hours ago
|
show 4 more comments
$begingroup$
Yes, the function has 3 critical numbers. One is where the derivative of the function $f(x)=sinx, xin[0,pi]$ is zero and the other two happen to be the endpoints $x=0$ and $x=pi$ because the function $f(x)=sinx, xin[0,pi]$ is non-differentiable at those points.
Do you remember what it means for a function to be differentiable at a point? The function has to have a derivative at that point. What is the derivative of the function $f(x)=sinx, xin[0,pi]$ at $x=0$? Well, it should be:
$$
lim_xto0fracsinx-sin0x-0=lim_xto0fracsinxx
$$
Which is nothing more than two one-sided limits (if those two limits exist and are equal to each other, the limit itself exists):
$$
lim_xto0^-fracsinxx, lim_xto0^+fracsinxx
$$
But the first of those two limits for all intents and purposes is nonexistent because all x values that lie to the left of $0$ are not in the domain of the function $f(x)=sinx, xin[0,pi]$. For a limit to exist, you need two one-sided limits. But you've got only one! Thus, the derivative at $x=0$ does not exist which makes it a critical number. The exact same idea applies to the other endpoint.
$endgroup$
Yes, the function has 3 critical numbers. One is where the derivative of the function $f(x)=sinx, xin[0,pi]$ is zero and the other two happen to be the endpoints $x=0$ and $x=pi$ because the function $f(x)=sinx, xin[0,pi]$ is non-differentiable at those points.
Do you remember what it means for a function to be differentiable at a point? The function has to have a derivative at that point. What is the derivative of the function $f(x)=sinx, xin[0,pi]$ at $x=0$? Well, it should be:
$$
lim_xto0fracsinx-sin0x-0=lim_xto0fracsinxx
$$
Which is nothing more than two one-sided limits (if those two limits exist and are equal to each other, the limit itself exists):
$$
lim_xto0^-fracsinxx, lim_xto0^+fracsinxx
$$
But the first of those two limits for all intents and purposes is nonexistent because all x values that lie to the left of $0$ are not in the domain of the function $f(x)=sinx, xin[0,pi]$. For a limit to exist, you need two one-sided limits. But you've got only one! Thus, the derivative at $x=0$ does not exist which makes it a critical number. The exact same idea applies to the other endpoint.
edited 3 hours ago
answered 4 hours ago
Michael RybkinMichael Rybkin
4,504522
4,504522
$begingroup$
I get your logic. But don't we have a definition for derivative at end points. We only take one sided derivatives at the end points. Do you have any book/source to back up your answer ? Thank you for your help
$endgroup$
– rajdeep dhingra
4 hours ago
$begingroup$
Well, you can look it up on Wikipedia: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Differentiable_function Wikipedia is more or less a reliable and authoritative source of information when it comes to mathematics.
$endgroup$
– Michael Rybkin
4 hours ago
$begingroup$
They have mentioned on that Wikipedia page that , the they are taking in an open interval U. Whereas what I am asking here is a closed interval case.
$endgroup$
– rajdeep dhingra
4 hours ago
$begingroup$
It says quite clearly at the beginning of the second paragraph: More generally, if $x_0$ is a point in the domain of a function $f$, then $f$ is said to be differentiable at $x_0$ if the derivative $f '(x_0)$ exists. It follows that if the point $x_0$ is in the domain of the function and the derivative $f '(x_0)$ does not exist, then the function is non-differentiable at that point.
$endgroup$
– Michael Rybkin
4 hours ago
$begingroup$
To put it simply, a derivative is basically a formula for the slope of the tangent line to a curve. If there is no curve to speak of to the left of a point, there cannot be a tangle line at that point.
$endgroup$
– Michael Rybkin
4 hours ago
|
show 4 more comments
$begingroup$
I get your logic. But don't we have a definition for derivative at end points. We only take one sided derivatives at the end points. Do you have any book/source to back up your answer ? Thank you for your help
$endgroup$
– rajdeep dhingra
4 hours ago
$begingroup$
Well, you can look it up on Wikipedia: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Differentiable_function Wikipedia is more or less a reliable and authoritative source of information when it comes to mathematics.
$endgroup$
– Michael Rybkin
4 hours ago
$begingroup$
They have mentioned on that Wikipedia page that , the they are taking in an open interval U. Whereas what I am asking here is a closed interval case.
$endgroup$
– rajdeep dhingra
4 hours ago
$begingroup$
It says quite clearly at the beginning of the second paragraph: More generally, if $x_0$ is a point in the domain of a function $f$, then $f$ is said to be differentiable at $x_0$ if the derivative $f '(x_0)$ exists. It follows that if the point $x_0$ is in the domain of the function and the derivative $f '(x_0)$ does not exist, then the function is non-differentiable at that point.
$endgroup$
– Michael Rybkin
4 hours ago
$begingroup$
To put it simply, a derivative is basically a formula for the slope of the tangent line to a curve. If there is no curve to speak of to the left of a point, there cannot be a tangle line at that point.
$endgroup$
– Michael Rybkin
4 hours ago
$begingroup$
I get your logic. But don't we have a definition for derivative at end points. We only take one sided derivatives at the end points. Do you have any book/source to back up your answer ? Thank you for your help
$endgroup$
– rajdeep dhingra
4 hours ago
$begingroup$
I get your logic. But don't we have a definition for derivative at end points. We only take one sided derivatives at the end points. Do you have any book/source to back up your answer ? Thank you for your help
$endgroup$
– rajdeep dhingra
4 hours ago
$begingroup$
Well, you can look it up on Wikipedia: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Differentiable_function Wikipedia is more or less a reliable and authoritative source of information when it comes to mathematics.
$endgroup$
– Michael Rybkin
4 hours ago
$begingroup$
Well, you can look it up on Wikipedia: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Differentiable_function Wikipedia is more or less a reliable and authoritative source of information when it comes to mathematics.
$endgroup$
– Michael Rybkin
4 hours ago
$begingroup$
They have mentioned on that Wikipedia page that , the they are taking in an open interval U. Whereas what I am asking here is a closed interval case.
$endgroup$
– rajdeep dhingra
4 hours ago
$begingroup$
They have mentioned on that Wikipedia page that , the they are taking in an open interval U. Whereas what I am asking here is a closed interval case.
$endgroup$
– rajdeep dhingra
4 hours ago
$begingroup$
It says quite clearly at the beginning of the second paragraph: More generally, if $x_0$ is a point in the domain of a function $f$, then $f$ is said to be differentiable at $x_0$ if the derivative $f '(x_0)$ exists. It follows that if the point $x_0$ is in the domain of the function and the derivative $f '(x_0)$ does not exist, then the function is non-differentiable at that point.
$endgroup$
– Michael Rybkin
4 hours ago
$begingroup$
It says quite clearly at the beginning of the second paragraph: More generally, if $x_0$ is a point in the domain of a function $f$, then $f$ is said to be differentiable at $x_0$ if the derivative $f '(x_0)$ exists. It follows that if the point $x_0$ is in the domain of the function and the derivative $f '(x_0)$ does not exist, then the function is non-differentiable at that point.
$endgroup$
– Michael Rybkin
4 hours ago
$begingroup$
To put it simply, a derivative is basically a formula for the slope of the tangent line to a curve. If there is no curve to speak of to the left of a point, there cannot be a tangle line at that point.
$endgroup$
– Michael Rybkin
4 hours ago
$begingroup$
To put it simply, a derivative is basically a formula for the slope of the tangent line to a curve. If there is no curve to speak of to the left of a point, there cannot be a tangle line at that point.
$endgroup$
– Michael Rybkin
4 hours ago
|
show 4 more comments
$begingroup$
$$f'(x) = cos(x) = 0 iff x = fracpi2$$
The function $f$ has only one critical point, since the derivative ($f'(x) = cos(x)$) exists at the endpoints. ($0$ and $pi$.)
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$$f'(x) = cos(x) = 0 iff x = fracpi2$$
The function $f$ has only one critical point, since the derivative ($f'(x) = cos(x)$) exists at the endpoints. ($0$ and $pi$.)
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$$f'(x) = cos(x) = 0 iff x = fracpi2$$
The function $f$ has only one critical point, since the derivative ($f'(x) = cos(x)$) exists at the endpoints. ($0$ and $pi$.)
$endgroup$
$$f'(x) = cos(x) = 0 iff x = fracpi2$$
The function $f$ has only one critical point, since the derivative ($f'(x) = cos(x)$) exists at the endpoints. ($0$ and $pi$.)
answered 4 hours ago
GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會
14.1k82651
14.1k82651
add a comment |
add a comment |
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