Proving the given $mathbb R^3/H$ $cong$ $mathbb R^2$ where $H$ = y in mathbb R$ The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are In Unicorn Meta Zoo #1: Why another podcast? Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar ManaraAre $(mathbbR,+)$ and $(mathbbC,+)$ isomorphic as additive groups?How do I show that these two presentations are isomorphic?Determine whether or not the two given groups are isomorphic.Surjective Homomorphisms of Isomorphic Abelian GroupsGroup isomorphism between two groups .How to use the first isomorphism theorem to show that two groups are isomorphic?Showing that these two groups are isomorphic?Showing that $2$ of the following groups are not isomorphicShow that the Two Given Groups are IsomorphicAre given groups isomorphic

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Proving the given $mathbb R^3/H$ $cong$ $mathbb R^2$ where $H$ = $(y,0,0)



The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are In
Unicorn Meta Zoo #1: Why another podcast?
Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar ManaraAre $(mathbbR,+)$ and $(mathbbC,+)$ isomorphic as additive groups?How do I show that these two presentations are isomorphic?Determine whether or not the two given groups are isomorphic.Surjective Homomorphisms of Isomorphic Abelian GroupsGroup isomorphism between two groups .How to use the first isomorphism theorem to show that two groups are isomorphic?Showing that these two groups are isomorphic?Showing that $2$ of the following groups are not isomorphicShow that the Two Given Groups are IsomorphicAre given groups isomorphic










1












$begingroup$


So I am given a group $mathbb R^3$ and a group $H$ = $(y,0,0). I have to prove that that $mathbb R^3/H$ $cong$ $mathbb R^2$. I am not sure how to even begin. My difficulty is coming up with a map between the two sets. I have already verified that $H unlhd mathbb R^3$. So all I know is $mathbb R^3/H$ is a group. Also, from first isomorphism theorem, I know that the group is isomorphic to the image of the map $f: mathbb R^3 to A$, and I do not know what that $A$ is supposed to be. Today is the first day I learned about isomorphism, and I am very confused about what is going on. Can anyone provide some help on this?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$
















    1












    $begingroup$


    So I am given a group $mathbb R^3$ and a group $H$ = $(y,0,0). I have to prove that that $mathbb R^3/H$ $cong$ $mathbb R^2$. I am not sure how to even begin. My difficulty is coming up with a map between the two sets. I have already verified that $H unlhd mathbb R^3$. So all I know is $mathbb R^3/H$ is a group. Also, from first isomorphism theorem, I know that the group is isomorphic to the image of the map $f: mathbb R^3 to A$, and I do not know what that $A$ is supposed to be. Today is the first day I learned about isomorphism, and I am very confused about what is going on. Can anyone provide some help on this?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$














      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      So I am given a group $mathbb R^3$ and a group $H$ = $(y,0,0). I have to prove that that $mathbb R^3/H$ $cong$ $mathbb R^2$. I am not sure how to even begin. My difficulty is coming up with a map between the two sets. I have already verified that $H unlhd mathbb R^3$. So all I know is $mathbb R^3/H$ is a group. Also, from first isomorphism theorem, I know that the group is isomorphic to the image of the map $f: mathbb R^3 to A$, and I do not know what that $A$ is supposed to be. Today is the first day I learned about isomorphism, and I am very confused about what is going on. Can anyone provide some help on this?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      So I am given a group $mathbb R^3$ and a group $H$ = $(y,0,0). I have to prove that that $mathbb R^3/H$ $cong$ $mathbb R^2$. I am not sure how to even begin. My difficulty is coming up with a map between the two sets. I have already verified that $H unlhd mathbb R^3$. So all I know is $mathbb R^3/H$ is a group. Also, from first isomorphism theorem, I know that the group is isomorphic to the image of the map $f: mathbb R^3 to A$, and I do not know what that $A$ is supposed to be. Today is the first day I learned about isomorphism, and I am very confused about what is going on. Can anyone provide some help on this?







      abstract-algebra group-isomorphism






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited 2 mins ago









      YuiTo Cheng

      2,4064937




      2,4064937










      asked 1 hour ago









      UfomammutUfomammut

      391314




      391314




















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

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          3












          $begingroup$

          The first isomorphism theorem asserts that, if $varphi: Ato B$ is a surjective homomorphism, then $Bcong A/kervarphi$. In your problem, you wish to show $mathbb R^2congmathbb R^3/H $, so a natural guess would be to take $A=mathbb R^3$ and $B=mathbb R^2$. Now it remains to construct the homomorphism so that $kervarphi=H$. I will leave the rest to you.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$




















            2












            $begingroup$

            We can use the first isomorphism theorem for groups here as you indicated. Consider the map $f : mathbbR^3 longrightarrow mathbbR^2$ as follows, $f(x,y,z) = (y,y+z)$. First, we show that this map is a well-defined group homomorphism and next show that $H = (y,0,0) $ is its kernel.
            If $(x_1,y_1,z_1) = (x_2,y_2,z_2)$ then $f(x_1,y_1,z_1) = f(x_2,y_2,z_2)$ hence map is well defined.
            Next we show this map is homomorphism. $f((x_1,y_1,z_1) + (x_2,y_2,z_2)) = f(x_1+x_2,y_1+y_2,z_1+z_2) = (y_1+y_2, (y_1+y_2)+(z_1+z_2)) = (y_1+y_2, (y_1+z_1)+(y_2+z_2) = (y_1,y_1+z_1) + (y_2,y_2+z_2) = f(x_1,y_1,z_1) +f(x_2,y_2,z_2). textMoreover, f(0,0,0) = (0,0)$
            The kernel of this map is seen to be all $(x,y,z) in mathbbR$ such that $y,z$ are $0$ , i.e., $H$.
            Hence first isomorphism theorem applies and $ mathbbR^3/H equiv mathbbR^2.$






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$












            • $begingroup$
              I came up with something similar, but what about the map $f((x,y,z)) = (y,z)$? I think this one should be fine too, right?
              $endgroup$
              – Ufomammut
              47 mins ago











            • $begingroup$
              Yes, that will also work.
              $endgroup$
              – Mayank Mishra
              44 mins ago











            Your Answer








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            2 Answers
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            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

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            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

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            3












            $begingroup$

            The first isomorphism theorem asserts that, if $varphi: Ato B$ is a surjective homomorphism, then $Bcong A/kervarphi$. In your problem, you wish to show $mathbb R^2congmathbb R^3/H $, so a natural guess would be to take $A=mathbb R^3$ and $B=mathbb R^2$. Now it remains to construct the homomorphism so that $kervarphi=H$. I will leave the rest to you.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$

















              3












              $begingroup$

              The first isomorphism theorem asserts that, if $varphi: Ato B$ is a surjective homomorphism, then $Bcong A/kervarphi$. In your problem, you wish to show $mathbb R^2congmathbb R^3/H $, so a natural guess would be to take $A=mathbb R^3$ and $B=mathbb R^2$. Now it remains to construct the homomorphism so that $kervarphi=H$. I will leave the rest to you.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$















                3












                3








                3





                $begingroup$

                The first isomorphism theorem asserts that, if $varphi: Ato B$ is a surjective homomorphism, then $Bcong A/kervarphi$. In your problem, you wish to show $mathbb R^2congmathbb R^3/H $, so a natural guess would be to take $A=mathbb R^3$ and $B=mathbb R^2$. Now it remains to construct the homomorphism so that $kervarphi=H$. I will leave the rest to you.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                The first isomorphism theorem asserts that, if $varphi: Ato B$ is a surjective homomorphism, then $Bcong A/kervarphi$. In your problem, you wish to show $mathbb R^2congmathbb R^3/H $, so a natural guess would be to take $A=mathbb R^3$ and $B=mathbb R^2$. Now it remains to construct the homomorphism so that $kervarphi=H$. I will leave the rest to you.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered 55 mins ago









                lEmlEm

                3,4621921




                3,4621921





















                    2












                    $begingroup$

                    We can use the first isomorphism theorem for groups here as you indicated. Consider the map $f : mathbbR^3 longrightarrow mathbbR^2$ as follows, $f(x,y,z) = (y,y+z)$. First, we show that this map is a well-defined group homomorphism and next show that $H = (y,0,0) $ is its kernel.
                    If $(x_1,y_1,z_1) = (x_2,y_2,z_2)$ then $f(x_1,y_1,z_1) = f(x_2,y_2,z_2)$ hence map is well defined.
                    Next we show this map is homomorphism. $f((x_1,y_1,z_1) + (x_2,y_2,z_2)) = f(x_1+x_2,y_1+y_2,z_1+z_2) = (y_1+y_2, (y_1+y_2)+(z_1+z_2)) = (y_1+y_2, (y_1+z_1)+(y_2+z_2) = (y_1,y_1+z_1) + (y_2,y_2+z_2) = f(x_1,y_1,z_1) +f(x_2,y_2,z_2). textMoreover, f(0,0,0) = (0,0)$
                    The kernel of this map is seen to be all $(x,y,z) in mathbbR$ such that $y,z$ are $0$ , i.e., $H$.
                    Hence first isomorphism theorem applies and $ mathbbR^3/H equiv mathbbR^2.$






                    share|cite|improve this answer











                    $endgroup$












                    • $begingroup$
                      I came up with something similar, but what about the map $f((x,y,z)) = (y,z)$? I think this one should be fine too, right?
                      $endgroup$
                      – Ufomammut
                      47 mins ago











                    • $begingroup$
                      Yes, that will also work.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Mayank Mishra
                      44 mins ago















                    2












                    $begingroup$

                    We can use the first isomorphism theorem for groups here as you indicated. Consider the map $f : mathbbR^3 longrightarrow mathbbR^2$ as follows, $f(x,y,z) = (y,y+z)$. First, we show that this map is a well-defined group homomorphism and next show that $H = (y,0,0) $ is its kernel.
                    If $(x_1,y_1,z_1) = (x_2,y_2,z_2)$ then $f(x_1,y_1,z_1) = f(x_2,y_2,z_2)$ hence map is well defined.
                    Next we show this map is homomorphism. $f((x_1,y_1,z_1) + (x_2,y_2,z_2)) = f(x_1+x_2,y_1+y_2,z_1+z_2) = (y_1+y_2, (y_1+y_2)+(z_1+z_2)) = (y_1+y_2, (y_1+z_1)+(y_2+z_2) = (y_1,y_1+z_1) + (y_2,y_2+z_2) = f(x_1,y_1,z_1) +f(x_2,y_2,z_2). textMoreover, f(0,0,0) = (0,0)$
                    The kernel of this map is seen to be all $(x,y,z) in mathbbR$ such that $y,z$ are $0$ , i.e., $H$.
                    Hence first isomorphism theorem applies and $ mathbbR^3/H equiv mathbbR^2.$






                    share|cite|improve this answer











                    $endgroup$












                    • $begingroup$
                      I came up with something similar, but what about the map $f((x,y,z)) = (y,z)$? I think this one should be fine too, right?
                      $endgroup$
                      – Ufomammut
                      47 mins ago











                    • $begingroup$
                      Yes, that will also work.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Mayank Mishra
                      44 mins ago













                    2












                    2








                    2





                    $begingroup$

                    We can use the first isomorphism theorem for groups here as you indicated. Consider the map $f : mathbbR^3 longrightarrow mathbbR^2$ as follows, $f(x,y,z) = (y,y+z)$. First, we show that this map is a well-defined group homomorphism and next show that $H = (y,0,0) $ is its kernel.
                    If $(x_1,y_1,z_1) = (x_2,y_2,z_2)$ then $f(x_1,y_1,z_1) = f(x_2,y_2,z_2)$ hence map is well defined.
                    Next we show this map is homomorphism. $f((x_1,y_1,z_1) + (x_2,y_2,z_2)) = f(x_1+x_2,y_1+y_2,z_1+z_2) = (y_1+y_2, (y_1+y_2)+(z_1+z_2)) = (y_1+y_2, (y_1+z_1)+(y_2+z_2) = (y_1,y_1+z_1) + (y_2,y_2+z_2) = f(x_1,y_1,z_1) +f(x_2,y_2,z_2). textMoreover, f(0,0,0) = (0,0)$
                    The kernel of this map is seen to be all $(x,y,z) in mathbbR$ such that $y,z$ are $0$ , i.e., $H$.
                    Hence first isomorphism theorem applies and $ mathbbR^3/H equiv mathbbR^2.$






                    share|cite|improve this answer











                    $endgroup$



                    We can use the first isomorphism theorem for groups here as you indicated. Consider the map $f : mathbbR^3 longrightarrow mathbbR^2$ as follows, $f(x,y,z) = (y,y+z)$. First, we show that this map is a well-defined group homomorphism and next show that $H = (y,0,0) $ is its kernel.
                    If $(x_1,y_1,z_1) = (x_2,y_2,z_2)$ then $f(x_1,y_1,z_1) = f(x_2,y_2,z_2)$ hence map is well defined.
                    Next we show this map is homomorphism. $f((x_1,y_1,z_1) + (x_2,y_2,z_2)) = f(x_1+x_2,y_1+y_2,z_1+z_2) = (y_1+y_2, (y_1+y_2)+(z_1+z_2)) = (y_1+y_2, (y_1+z_1)+(y_2+z_2) = (y_1,y_1+z_1) + (y_2,y_2+z_2) = f(x_1,y_1,z_1) +f(x_2,y_2,z_2). textMoreover, f(0,0,0) = (0,0)$
                    The kernel of this map is seen to be all $(x,y,z) in mathbbR$ such that $y,z$ are $0$ , i.e., $H$.
                    Hence first isomorphism theorem applies and $ mathbbR^3/H equiv mathbbR^2.$







                    share|cite|improve this answer














                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer








                    edited 30 mins ago

























                    answered 49 mins ago









                    Mayank MishraMayank Mishra

                    1068




                    1068











                    • $begingroup$
                      I came up with something similar, but what about the map $f((x,y,z)) = (y,z)$? I think this one should be fine too, right?
                      $endgroup$
                      – Ufomammut
                      47 mins ago











                    • $begingroup$
                      Yes, that will also work.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Mayank Mishra
                      44 mins ago
















                    • $begingroup$
                      I came up with something similar, but what about the map $f((x,y,z)) = (y,z)$? I think this one should be fine too, right?
                      $endgroup$
                      – Ufomammut
                      47 mins ago











                    • $begingroup$
                      Yes, that will also work.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Mayank Mishra
                      44 mins ago















                    $begingroup$
                    I came up with something similar, but what about the map $f((x,y,z)) = (y,z)$? I think this one should be fine too, right?
                    $endgroup$
                    – Ufomammut
                    47 mins ago





                    $begingroup$
                    I came up with something similar, but what about the map $f((x,y,z)) = (y,z)$? I think this one should be fine too, right?
                    $endgroup$
                    – Ufomammut
                    47 mins ago













                    $begingroup$
                    Yes, that will also work.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Mayank Mishra
                    44 mins ago




                    $begingroup$
                    Yes, that will also work.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Mayank Mishra
                    44 mins ago

















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