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Does signing a contract after explaining it was not legaly binding count as contract fraud?



Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 23:30 UTC (7:30pm US/Eastern)
Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Unicorn Meta Zoo #1: Why another podcast?Can other party sneak in new contract terms via termination notice?If there was no written contract in the first place would a phone call be enough to terminate relationship with the other party?How to prove that someone forged my signature on a contract that I was not aware of?Signing vs initialing a contractContract active after another contract signing: How to state it?Is it fraudulent for an extension like adblock to still count as an ad impression for content creatorsCan the Feds not put Bank Executives (or their employees) in Prison for Fraud?Is Intentional Immaterial Fraud Legal?alternatives to other party signing a contractCan a party argue they did not know a contract was changed before signing it?










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An individual recently claimed to have run into a situation where he was charged with "fraudulent contract activities" in a situation that my (admittedly quite limited) understanding of contract law says should not have violated any laws.



The individual in question was donating sperm as a known sperm donor to a lesbian couple. The couple wanted to sign a contract saying that the resulting child would be legally theirs and he wouldn't file for child support etc. The individual claims he informed the couple that in his state the is already president that states these sort of contracts would not be respected, but since the couple was insistent on signing the contract anyways he eventually agreed to do so, even while telling them it was not legally binding.



He claims he was sued for "fraudulent contract activities" (his exact words). Supposedly because he admitted he knew the contract was meaningless he was now guilty of fraud by signing it. However, he gained no benefit from the contract, as the same scenario would have happened exactly as it is without a contract, and he claims he clearly explained the contract was worthless. I find it odd that he could be charged with anything under such a situation. He makes it sound like this is a criminal charge, as opposed to some sort of civil case, and he says the judge chose to 'charge' him.



Again, common law, and contract in particular, has always seemed to apply common sense so I was a little skeptical. Of course the individual making the claim also has a history of questionable truthhoods as well, and is making claims that further his personal agenda, so I'm not quite willing to take his words as 100% true.



Would this scenario warrant any kind of potential fraud charges, cvil or criminal? The individual in question lives in Oklahoma so probably that's where the contract was signed.









share


























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    An individual recently claimed to have run into a situation where he was charged with "fraudulent contract activities" in a situation that my (admittedly quite limited) understanding of contract law says should not have violated any laws.



    The individual in question was donating sperm as a known sperm donor to a lesbian couple. The couple wanted to sign a contract saying that the resulting child would be legally theirs and he wouldn't file for child support etc. The individual claims he informed the couple that in his state the is already president that states these sort of contracts would not be respected, but since the couple was insistent on signing the contract anyways he eventually agreed to do so, even while telling them it was not legally binding.



    He claims he was sued for "fraudulent contract activities" (his exact words). Supposedly because he admitted he knew the contract was meaningless he was now guilty of fraud by signing it. However, he gained no benefit from the contract, as the same scenario would have happened exactly as it is without a contract, and he claims he clearly explained the contract was worthless. I find it odd that he could be charged with anything under such a situation. He makes it sound like this is a criminal charge, as opposed to some sort of civil case, and he says the judge chose to 'charge' him.



    Again, common law, and contract in particular, has always seemed to apply common sense so I was a little skeptical. Of course the individual making the claim also has a history of questionable truthhoods as well, and is making claims that further his personal agenda, so I'm not quite willing to take his words as 100% true.



    Would this scenario warrant any kind of potential fraud charges, cvil or criminal? The individual in question lives in Oklahoma so probably that's where the contract was signed.









    share
























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      An individual recently claimed to have run into a situation where he was charged with "fraudulent contract activities" in a situation that my (admittedly quite limited) understanding of contract law says should not have violated any laws.



      The individual in question was donating sperm as a known sperm donor to a lesbian couple. The couple wanted to sign a contract saying that the resulting child would be legally theirs and he wouldn't file for child support etc. The individual claims he informed the couple that in his state the is already president that states these sort of contracts would not be respected, but since the couple was insistent on signing the contract anyways he eventually agreed to do so, even while telling them it was not legally binding.



      He claims he was sued for "fraudulent contract activities" (his exact words). Supposedly because he admitted he knew the contract was meaningless he was now guilty of fraud by signing it. However, he gained no benefit from the contract, as the same scenario would have happened exactly as it is without a contract, and he claims he clearly explained the contract was worthless. I find it odd that he could be charged with anything under such a situation. He makes it sound like this is a criminal charge, as opposed to some sort of civil case, and he says the judge chose to 'charge' him.



      Again, common law, and contract in particular, has always seemed to apply common sense so I was a little skeptical. Of course the individual making the claim also has a history of questionable truthhoods as well, and is making claims that further his personal agenda, so I'm not quite willing to take his words as 100% true.



      Would this scenario warrant any kind of potential fraud charges, cvil or criminal? The individual in question lives in Oklahoma so probably that's where the contract was signed.









      share














      An individual recently claimed to have run into a situation where he was charged with "fraudulent contract activities" in a situation that my (admittedly quite limited) understanding of contract law says should not have violated any laws.



      The individual in question was donating sperm as a known sperm donor to a lesbian couple. The couple wanted to sign a contract saying that the resulting child would be legally theirs and he wouldn't file for child support etc. The individual claims he informed the couple that in his state the is already president that states these sort of contracts would not be respected, but since the couple was insistent on signing the contract anyways he eventually agreed to do so, even while telling them it was not legally binding.



      He claims he was sued for "fraudulent contract activities" (his exact words). Supposedly because he admitted he knew the contract was meaningless he was now guilty of fraud by signing it. However, he gained no benefit from the contract, as the same scenario would have happened exactly as it is without a contract, and he claims he clearly explained the contract was worthless. I find it odd that he could be charged with anything under such a situation. He makes it sound like this is a criminal charge, as opposed to some sort of civil case, and he says the judge chose to 'charge' him.



      Again, common law, and contract in particular, has always seemed to apply common sense so I was a little skeptical. Of course the individual making the claim also has a history of questionable truthhoods as well, and is making claims that further his personal agenda, so I'm not quite willing to take his words as 100% true.



      Would this scenario warrant any kind of potential fraud charges, cvil or criminal? The individual in question lives in Oklahoma so probably that's where the contract was signed.







      contract-law fraud





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      dsollendsollen

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