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Robert Kraft - what is the reason for the prosecution's offered deal?
What is the authority of the clerk of court?What happens if a court decision maneuvers the court itself into a untenable legal position?What is the origin of this legal quote?What is the correct way of communicating with the Family Court in the UK?What department in France is responsible for searching citizens physical address?Can a settlement agreement include a provision that prevents the claimant from returning to the premises owned by the defendant?Filing for arbitration in the court of common pleasWhat does a trial for Terrorism look like in France?Legally, in the U.S. (NY, NJ, FLA), what determines the difference between a THREAT and NEGOTIATING, for either side?Could I apply for a job at Hooters with the intent of suing for a settlement when they don't hire me?
After reading this article about Robert Kraft (football team owner allegedly caught having sex with a prostitute in a spa), it appears that the prosecution offered Robert Kraft a decent deal:
He has to "admit that he would have been found guilty had the case gone to trial",
and in exchange his only punishment (aside from the NFL's own internal discipline), would be:
- take an education course on prostitution
- complete 100 hours of community service
- subject himself to an STD screening test
- pay some court costs.
Presumably he's already familiar enough with prostitution, so doesn't need to be educated on it, but my real two questions are:
Why does the government want him to admit he "would have been" found guilty, "if the case had gone to trial"? Why not just offer the deal in exchange for a guilty plea? (especially if there really is a video of his alleged sexual encounter). How does it benefit the government for an admittance he would've lost a trial?
Why does the government demand he subject himself to an STD screening? That just seems like an attempt to publicly humiliate him. If the government legitimately is worried about the spread of STDs, and thinks he likely has one, why don't they just say so to him, and advise him to get a test? Isn't this an unnecessary intrusion into someone's personal medical decisions?
court settlement
asked 8 mins ago
Jamin GreyJamin Grey
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After reading this article about Robert Kraft (football team owner allegedly caught having sex with a prostitute in a spa), it appears that the prosecution offered Robert Kraft a decent deal:
He has to "admit that he would have been found guilty had the case gone to trial",
and in exchange his only punishment (aside from the NFL's own internal discipline), would be:
- take an education course on prostitution
- complete 100 hours of community service
- subject himself to an STD screening test
- pay some court costs.
Presumably he's already familiar enough with prostitution, so doesn't need to be educated on it, but my real two questions are:
Why does the government want him to admit he "would have been" found guilty, "if the case had gone to trial"? Why not just offer the deal in exchange for a guilty plea? (especially if there really is a video of his alleged sexual encounter). How does it benefit the government for an admittance he would've lost a trial?
Why does the government demand he subject himself to an STD screening? That just seems like an attempt to publicly humiliate him. If the government legitimately is worried about the spread of STDs, and thinks he likely has one, why don't they just say so to him, and advise him to get a test? Isn't this an unnecessary intrusion into someone's personal medical decisions?
court settlement
asked 8 mins ago
Jamin GreyJamin Grey
1011
New contributor
Jamin Grey is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
add a comment |
After reading this article about Robert Kraft (football team owner allegedly caught having sex with a prostitute in a spa), it appears that the prosecution offered Robert Kraft a decent deal:
He has to "admit that he would have been found guilty had the case gone to trial",
and in exchange his only punishment (aside from the NFL's own internal discipline), would be:
- take an education course on prostitution
- complete 100 hours of community service
- subject himself to an STD screening test
- pay some court costs.
Presumably he's already familiar enough with prostitution, so doesn't need to be educated on it, but my real two questions are:
Why does the government want him to admit he "would have been" found guilty, "if the case had gone to trial"? Why not just offer the deal in exchange for a guilty plea? (especially if there really is a video of his alleged sexual encounter). How does it benefit the government for an admittance he would've lost a trial?
Why does the government demand he subject himself to an STD screening? That just seems like an attempt to publicly humiliate him. If the government legitimately is worried about the spread of STDs, and thinks he likely has one, why don't they just say so to him, and advise him to get a test? Isn't this an unnecessary intrusion into someone's personal medical decisions?
court settlement
asked 8 mins ago
Jamin GreyJamin Grey
1011
New contributor
Jamin Grey is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
After reading this article about Robert Kraft (football team owner allegedly caught having sex with a prostitute in a spa), it appears that the prosecution offered Robert Kraft a decent deal:
He has to "admit that he would have been found guilty had the case gone to trial",
and in exchange his only punishment (aside from the NFL's own internal discipline), would be:
- take an education course on prostitution
- complete 100 hours of community service
- subject himself to an STD screening test
- pay some court costs.
Presumably he's already familiar enough with prostitution, so doesn't need to be educated on it, but my real two questions are:
Why does the government want him to admit he "would have been" found guilty, "if the case had gone to trial"? Why not just offer the deal in exchange for a guilty plea? (especially if there really is a video of his alleged sexual encounter). How does it benefit the government for an admittance he would've lost a trial?
Why does the government demand he subject himself to an STD screening? That just seems like an attempt to publicly humiliate him. If the government legitimately is worried about the spread of STDs, and thinks he likely has one, why don't they just say so to him, and advise him to get a test? Isn't this an unnecessary intrusion into someone's personal medical decisions?
court settlement
court settlement
asked 8 mins ago
Jamin GreyJamin Grey
1011
New contributor
Jamin Grey is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
asked 8 mins ago
Jamin GreyJamin Grey
1011
New contributor
Jamin Grey is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
asked 8 mins ago
Jamin GreyJamin Grey
1011
New contributor
Jamin Grey is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
asked 8 mins ago
Jamin GreyJamin Grey
1011
asked 8 mins ago
Jamin GreyJamin Grey
1011
1011
New contributor
Jamin Grey is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
New contributor
Jamin Grey is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
Jamin Grey is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
add a comment |
add a comment |
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