What is the difference between globalisation and imperialism? Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)What's the difference between power inheritance in a Feudal Monarchy and property inheritance in the modern world?What is the difference between “State” and “Sovereign” in The Social Contract?What is the difference between Communism and Anarchism?Difference between nationalism and patriotismWhat is the difference between negative rights and positive rights?What's the difference between Neorealism and Neoliberalism?What exactly is the difference between theory and metatheory?Why is globalisation so disdained?Difference between the Scientific and Behavioral approach to International RelationsWhat is the difference between direct and indirect democracy

Can a new player join a group only when a new campaign starts?

Amount of permutations on an NxNxN Rubik's Cube

Are all finite dimensional hilbert spaces isomorphic to spaces with Euclidean norms?

What is a fractional matching?

What initially awakened the Balrog?

Take 2! Is this homebrew Lady of Pain warlock patron balanced?

Generate an RGB colour grid

How fail-safe is nr as stop bytes?

What does it mean that physics no longer uses mechanical models to describe phenomena?

Does the Weapon Master feat grant you a fighting style?

Disembodied hand growing fangs

When a candle burns, why does the top of wick glow if bottom of flame is hottest?

Central Vacuuming: Is it worth it, and how does it compare to normal vacuuming?

Why does the remaining Rebel fleet at the end of Rogue One seem dramatically larger than the one in A New Hope?

Did Krishna say in Bhagavad Gita "I am in every living being"

Why wasn't DOSKEY integrated with COMMAND.COM?

Is it fair for a professor to grade us on the possession of past papers?

Should I follow up with an employee I believe overracted to a mistake I made?

How does light 'choose' between wave and particle behaviour?

Should I use a zero-interest credit card for a large one-time purchase?

Why do we need to use the builder design pattern when we can do the same thing with setters?

Why does it sometimes sound good to play a grace note as a lead in to a note in a melody?

What do you call the main part of a joke?

Multiple OR (||) Conditions in If Statement



What is the difference between globalisation and imperialism?



Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)What's the difference between power inheritance in a Feudal Monarchy and property inheritance in the modern world?What is the difference between “State” and “Sovereign” in The Social Contract?What is the difference between Communism and Anarchism?Difference between nationalism and patriotismWhat is the difference between negative rights and positive rights?What's the difference between Neorealism and Neoliberalism?What exactly is the difference between theory and metatheory?Why is globalisation so disdained?Difference between the Scientific and Behavioral approach to International RelationsWhat is the difference between direct and indirect democracy










2















It seems obvious to start by looking at the first few lines on Wikipedia:



Wikipedia on globalisation




Globalization or globalisation is the process of interaction and integration among people, companies, and governments worldwide. As a complex and multifaceted phenomenon, globalization is considered by some as a form of capitalist expansion which entails the integration of local and national economies into a global, unregulated market economy.




Wikipedia on imperialism




Imperialism is policy or ideology of extending a nation's rule over foreign nations, often by military force or by gaining political and economic control of other areas. Imperialism was both normal and common worldwide throughout recorded history, the earliest examples dating from the mid-third millennium BC, diminishing only in the late 20th century.





Based on that, the main difference seems to be that imperialism is something from the past whereas globalisation is from the present. In addition to that, imperialism seems to be more of a one-way street (as in, one party profits and the other loses), whereas globalisation is (at least from the Wikipedia definition) more of a two-way street. Finally, the use of military force seems to be mentioned only in the definition of imperialism, but it's not always mentioned (i.e. the use of the word often).



For example, today's globalisation could be deemed similar because we all live under the economic control of China (because most of our stuff is made there) and the United States has a lot of influence through many of it's companies operating globally (e.g. Americanization)




To what extent are the two different? Is there more to it or are the two rather similar?










share|improve this question


























    2















    It seems obvious to start by looking at the first few lines on Wikipedia:



    Wikipedia on globalisation




    Globalization or globalisation is the process of interaction and integration among people, companies, and governments worldwide. As a complex and multifaceted phenomenon, globalization is considered by some as a form of capitalist expansion which entails the integration of local and national economies into a global, unregulated market economy.




    Wikipedia on imperialism




    Imperialism is policy or ideology of extending a nation's rule over foreign nations, often by military force or by gaining political and economic control of other areas. Imperialism was both normal and common worldwide throughout recorded history, the earliest examples dating from the mid-third millennium BC, diminishing only in the late 20th century.





    Based on that, the main difference seems to be that imperialism is something from the past whereas globalisation is from the present. In addition to that, imperialism seems to be more of a one-way street (as in, one party profits and the other loses), whereas globalisation is (at least from the Wikipedia definition) more of a two-way street. Finally, the use of military force seems to be mentioned only in the definition of imperialism, but it's not always mentioned (i.e. the use of the word often).



    For example, today's globalisation could be deemed similar because we all live under the economic control of China (because most of our stuff is made there) and the United States has a lot of influence through many of it's companies operating globally (e.g. Americanization)




    To what extent are the two different? Is there more to it or are the two rather similar?










    share|improve this question
























      2












      2








      2








      It seems obvious to start by looking at the first few lines on Wikipedia:



      Wikipedia on globalisation




      Globalization or globalisation is the process of interaction and integration among people, companies, and governments worldwide. As a complex and multifaceted phenomenon, globalization is considered by some as a form of capitalist expansion which entails the integration of local and national economies into a global, unregulated market economy.




      Wikipedia on imperialism




      Imperialism is policy or ideology of extending a nation's rule over foreign nations, often by military force or by gaining political and economic control of other areas. Imperialism was both normal and common worldwide throughout recorded history, the earliest examples dating from the mid-third millennium BC, diminishing only in the late 20th century.





      Based on that, the main difference seems to be that imperialism is something from the past whereas globalisation is from the present. In addition to that, imperialism seems to be more of a one-way street (as in, one party profits and the other loses), whereas globalisation is (at least from the Wikipedia definition) more of a two-way street. Finally, the use of military force seems to be mentioned only in the definition of imperialism, but it's not always mentioned (i.e. the use of the word often).



      For example, today's globalisation could be deemed similar because we all live under the economic control of China (because most of our stuff is made there) and the United States has a lot of influence through many of it's companies operating globally (e.g. Americanization)




      To what extent are the two different? Is there more to it or are the two rather similar?










      share|improve this question














      It seems obvious to start by looking at the first few lines on Wikipedia:



      Wikipedia on globalisation




      Globalization or globalisation is the process of interaction and integration among people, companies, and governments worldwide. As a complex and multifaceted phenomenon, globalization is considered by some as a form of capitalist expansion which entails the integration of local and national economies into a global, unregulated market economy.




      Wikipedia on imperialism




      Imperialism is policy or ideology of extending a nation's rule over foreign nations, often by military force or by gaining political and economic control of other areas. Imperialism was both normal and common worldwide throughout recorded history, the earliest examples dating from the mid-third millennium BC, diminishing only in the late 20th century.





      Based on that, the main difference seems to be that imperialism is something from the past whereas globalisation is from the present. In addition to that, imperialism seems to be more of a one-way street (as in, one party profits and the other loses), whereas globalisation is (at least from the Wikipedia definition) more of a two-way street. Finally, the use of military force seems to be mentioned only in the definition of imperialism, but it's not always mentioned (i.e. the use of the word often).



      For example, today's globalisation could be deemed similar because we all live under the economic control of China (because most of our stuff is made there) and the United States has a lot of influence through many of it's companies operating globally (e.g. Americanization)




      To what extent are the two different? Is there more to it or are the two rather similar?







      political-theory globalization imperialism






      share|improve this question













      share|improve this question











      share|improve this question




      share|improve this question










      asked 2 hours ago









      JJJJJJ

      6,84422557




      6,84422557




















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          4














          The answer is in the quoted passages you've posted. Imperialism is a policy put forth by a nation, whereas globalization is a global phenomenon. Imperialism is unilateral and globalization is multilateral, as you alluded to.



          Specifically, globalization is more of a result of a variety of multilateral organizations, treaties, and policies by many governments worldwide. The Bretton Woods Conference was the beginning of the more globalized economy that we have today. The goal was a more stable international system of finance, the globalized economy developed relatively organically over the next several decades.



          Additionally, imperialism is historically understood to be a military policy by nature. In the post-WWII era this changed for a variety of reasons. Explicit military control of another country was no longer seen as acceptable as it may have been in the colonial area, and perhaps more importantly the Cold War had begun. Not only could the US and the Soviets not easily impose influence upon a country inside the others sphere of influence without potentially world-ended repercussions, culture was a large factor in the cold war and neither side wanted to be so easily cast as a brute. Though both nations did continue to display imperialistic tendencies towards countries in their respective "backyards" (Soviets in eastern Europe and central Asia, the US in central and southern America). What may be more relevant to this question were the less explicit policies of exerting control over foreign countries that became known as Neocolonialism.



          I would posit that there are two types of neocolonialism, intentional and unintentional in respect to the countries that stand to benefit. The growth of the economic influence of a country and thus the spread of its multinational companies and their respective influence is, in essence, an organic process. It is not necessarily always a good one for all involved, but it has in aggregate been beneficial globally. It is the intentional abuse of this influence by a country that can hide imperialism behind the guise of a globalized financial system. This is something the United States did its fair share of at the zenith of the cold war, and something that China is doing today. The general strategy is this: approach a less-developed country and give estimates on the economic viability of [large infrastructure project], knowing that the estimate isn't accurate, have the country take out a loan to pay for the project, the great power builds the project, the economic gains do not materialize at the scale promised, and that country is now in debt to the great power. The global financial framework legitimizes this type of exchange, in which now the great power has undue influence over the less-developed country.



          To answer your question concisely: Imperialism and globalization are not the same. Imperialism is an explicit policy by a country of control of another, whereas globalization is the mostly organic result of several decades of growing connections between the economies of the world. However, the financial framework that has come about from globalization has the potential to be abused by economically powerful nations to exert undue influence over less-developed countries.






          share|improve this answer


















          • 1





            You name a number of good points, and I especially like how you say globalization has the potential to develop to allow abuse by bigger countries. Though, just to play devil's advocate, isn't that the same with imperialism? The countries that started off stronger (at some point, e.g. ships and bullets) had the means to conquer other countries and become even stronger. That sounds very similar to stronger companies (and in turn countries) getting stronger whereas the other countries are unable to compete. Or it could be that that's just a Darwinist thing that could be applied to most systems.

            – JJJ
            1 hour ago











          Your Answer








          StackExchange.ready(function()
          var channelOptions =
          tags: "".split(" "),
          id: "475"
          ;
          initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

          StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function()
          // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
          if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled)
          StackExchange.using("snippets", function()
          createEditor();
          );

          else
          createEditor();

          );

          function createEditor()
          StackExchange.prepareEditor(
          heartbeatType: 'answer',
          autoActivateHeartbeat: false,
          convertImagesToLinks: false,
          noModals: true,
          showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
          reputationToPostImages: null,
          bindNavPrevention: true,
          postfix: "",
          imageUploader:
          brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
          contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
          allowUrls: true
          ,
          noCode: true, onDemand: true,
          discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
          ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
          );



          );













          draft saved

          draft discarded


















          StackExchange.ready(
          function ()
          StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fpolitics.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f40744%2fwhat-is-the-difference-between-globalisation-and-imperialism%23new-answer', 'question_page');

          );

          Post as a guest















          Required, but never shown

























          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes








          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          4














          The answer is in the quoted passages you've posted. Imperialism is a policy put forth by a nation, whereas globalization is a global phenomenon. Imperialism is unilateral and globalization is multilateral, as you alluded to.



          Specifically, globalization is more of a result of a variety of multilateral organizations, treaties, and policies by many governments worldwide. The Bretton Woods Conference was the beginning of the more globalized economy that we have today. The goal was a more stable international system of finance, the globalized economy developed relatively organically over the next several decades.



          Additionally, imperialism is historically understood to be a military policy by nature. In the post-WWII era this changed for a variety of reasons. Explicit military control of another country was no longer seen as acceptable as it may have been in the colonial area, and perhaps more importantly the Cold War had begun. Not only could the US and the Soviets not easily impose influence upon a country inside the others sphere of influence without potentially world-ended repercussions, culture was a large factor in the cold war and neither side wanted to be so easily cast as a brute. Though both nations did continue to display imperialistic tendencies towards countries in their respective "backyards" (Soviets in eastern Europe and central Asia, the US in central and southern America). What may be more relevant to this question were the less explicit policies of exerting control over foreign countries that became known as Neocolonialism.



          I would posit that there are two types of neocolonialism, intentional and unintentional in respect to the countries that stand to benefit. The growth of the economic influence of a country and thus the spread of its multinational companies and their respective influence is, in essence, an organic process. It is not necessarily always a good one for all involved, but it has in aggregate been beneficial globally. It is the intentional abuse of this influence by a country that can hide imperialism behind the guise of a globalized financial system. This is something the United States did its fair share of at the zenith of the cold war, and something that China is doing today. The general strategy is this: approach a less-developed country and give estimates on the economic viability of [large infrastructure project], knowing that the estimate isn't accurate, have the country take out a loan to pay for the project, the great power builds the project, the economic gains do not materialize at the scale promised, and that country is now in debt to the great power. The global financial framework legitimizes this type of exchange, in which now the great power has undue influence over the less-developed country.



          To answer your question concisely: Imperialism and globalization are not the same. Imperialism is an explicit policy by a country of control of another, whereas globalization is the mostly organic result of several decades of growing connections between the economies of the world. However, the financial framework that has come about from globalization has the potential to be abused by economically powerful nations to exert undue influence over less-developed countries.






          share|improve this answer


















          • 1





            You name a number of good points, and I especially like how you say globalization has the potential to develop to allow abuse by bigger countries. Though, just to play devil's advocate, isn't that the same with imperialism? The countries that started off stronger (at some point, e.g. ships and bullets) had the means to conquer other countries and become even stronger. That sounds very similar to stronger companies (and in turn countries) getting stronger whereas the other countries are unable to compete. Or it could be that that's just a Darwinist thing that could be applied to most systems.

            – JJJ
            1 hour ago















          4














          The answer is in the quoted passages you've posted. Imperialism is a policy put forth by a nation, whereas globalization is a global phenomenon. Imperialism is unilateral and globalization is multilateral, as you alluded to.



          Specifically, globalization is more of a result of a variety of multilateral organizations, treaties, and policies by many governments worldwide. The Bretton Woods Conference was the beginning of the more globalized economy that we have today. The goal was a more stable international system of finance, the globalized economy developed relatively organically over the next several decades.



          Additionally, imperialism is historically understood to be a military policy by nature. In the post-WWII era this changed for a variety of reasons. Explicit military control of another country was no longer seen as acceptable as it may have been in the colonial area, and perhaps more importantly the Cold War had begun. Not only could the US and the Soviets not easily impose influence upon a country inside the others sphere of influence without potentially world-ended repercussions, culture was a large factor in the cold war and neither side wanted to be so easily cast as a brute. Though both nations did continue to display imperialistic tendencies towards countries in their respective "backyards" (Soviets in eastern Europe and central Asia, the US in central and southern America). What may be more relevant to this question were the less explicit policies of exerting control over foreign countries that became known as Neocolonialism.



          I would posit that there are two types of neocolonialism, intentional and unintentional in respect to the countries that stand to benefit. The growth of the economic influence of a country and thus the spread of its multinational companies and their respective influence is, in essence, an organic process. It is not necessarily always a good one for all involved, but it has in aggregate been beneficial globally. It is the intentional abuse of this influence by a country that can hide imperialism behind the guise of a globalized financial system. This is something the United States did its fair share of at the zenith of the cold war, and something that China is doing today. The general strategy is this: approach a less-developed country and give estimates on the economic viability of [large infrastructure project], knowing that the estimate isn't accurate, have the country take out a loan to pay for the project, the great power builds the project, the economic gains do not materialize at the scale promised, and that country is now in debt to the great power. The global financial framework legitimizes this type of exchange, in which now the great power has undue influence over the less-developed country.



          To answer your question concisely: Imperialism and globalization are not the same. Imperialism is an explicit policy by a country of control of another, whereas globalization is the mostly organic result of several decades of growing connections between the economies of the world. However, the financial framework that has come about from globalization has the potential to be abused by economically powerful nations to exert undue influence over less-developed countries.






          share|improve this answer


















          • 1





            You name a number of good points, and I especially like how you say globalization has the potential to develop to allow abuse by bigger countries. Though, just to play devil's advocate, isn't that the same with imperialism? The countries that started off stronger (at some point, e.g. ships and bullets) had the means to conquer other countries and become even stronger. That sounds very similar to stronger companies (and in turn countries) getting stronger whereas the other countries are unable to compete. Or it could be that that's just a Darwinist thing that could be applied to most systems.

            – JJJ
            1 hour ago













          4












          4








          4







          The answer is in the quoted passages you've posted. Imperialism is a policy put forth by a nation, whereas globalization is a global phenomenon. Imperialism is unilateral and globalization is multilateral, as you alluded to.



          Specifically, globalization is more of a result of a variety of multilateral organizations, treaties, and policies by many governments worldwide. The Bretton Woods Conference was the beginning of the more globalized economy that we have today. The goal was a more stable international system of finance, the globalized economy developed relatively organically over the next several decades.



          Additionally, imperialism is historically understood to be a military policy by nature. In the post-WWII era this changed for a variety of reasons. Explicit military control of another country was no longer seen as acceptable as it may have been in the colonial area, and perhaps more importantly the Cold War had begun. Not only could the US and the Soviets not easily impose influence upon a country inside the others sphere of influence without potentially world-ended repercussions, culture was a large factor in the cold war and neither side wanted to be so easily cast as a brute. Though both nations did continue to display imperialistic tendencies towards countries in their respective "backyards" (Soviets in eastern Europe and central Asia, the US in central and southern America). What may be more relevant to this question were the less explicit policies of exerting control over foreign countries that became known as Neocolonialism.



          I would posit that there are two types of neocolonialism, intentional and unintentional in respect to the countries that stand to benefit. The growth of the economic influence of a country and thus the spread of its multinational companies and their respective influence is, in essence, an organic process. It is not necessarily always a good one for all involved, but it has in aggregate been beneficial globally. It is the intentional abuse of this influence by a country that can hide imperialism behind the guise of a globalized financial system. This is something the United States did its fair share of at the zenith of the cold war, and something that China is doing today. The general strategy is this: approach a less-developed country and give estimates on the economic viability of [large infrastructure project], knowing that the estimate isn't accurate, have the country take out a loan to pay for the project, the great power builds the project, the economic gains do not materialize at the scale promised, and that country is now in debt to the great power. The global financial framework legitimizes this type of exchange, in which now the great power has undue influence over the less-developed country.



          To answer your question concisely: Imperialism and globalization are not the same. Imperialism is an explicit policy by a country of control of another, whereas globalization is the mostly organic result of several decades of growing connections between the economies of the world. However, the financial framework that has come about from globalization has the potential to be abused by economically powerful nations to exert undue influence over less-developed countries.






          share|improve this answer













          The answer is in the quoted passages you've posted. Imperialism is a policy put forth by a nation, whereas globalization is a global phenomenon. Imperialism is unilateral and globalization is multilateral, as you alluded to.



          Specifically, globalization is more of a result of a variety of multilateral organizations, treaties, and policies by many governments worldwide. The Bretton Woods Conference was the beginning of the more globalized economy that we have today. The goal was a more stable international system of finance, the globalized economy developed relatively organically over the next several decades.



          Additionally, imperialism is historically understood to be a military policy by nature. In the post-WWII era this changed for a variety of reasons. Explicit military control of another country was no longer seen as acceptable as it may have been in the colonial area, and perhaps more importantly the Cold War had begun. Not only could the US and the Soviets not easily impose influence upon a country inside the others sphere of influence without potentially world-ended repercussions, culture was a large factor in the cold war and neither side wanted to be so easily cast as a brute. Though both nations did continue to display imperialistic tendencies towards countries in their respective "backyards" (Soviets in eastern Europe and central Asia, the US in central and southern America). What may be more relevant to this question were the less explicit policies of exerting control over foreign countries that became known as Neocolonialism.



          I would posit that there are two types of neocolonialism, intentional and unintentional in respect to the countries that stand to benefit. The growth of the economic influence of a country and thus the spread of its multinational companies and their respective influence is, in essence, an organic process. It is not necessarily always a good one for all involved, but it has in aggregate been beneficial globally. It is the intentional abuse of this influence by a country that can hide imperialism behind the guise of a globalized financial system. This is something the United States did its fair share of at the zenith of the cold war, and something that China is doing today. The general strategy is this: approach a less-developed country and give estimates on the economic viability of [large infrastructure project], knowing that the estimate isn't accurate, have the country take out a loan to pay for the project, the great power builds the project, the economic gains do not materialize at the scale promised, and that country is now in debt to the great power. The global financial framework legitimizes this type of exchange, in which now the great power has undue influence over the less-developed country.



          To answer your question concisely: Imperialism and globalization are not the same. Imperialism is an explicit policy by a country of control of another, whereas globalization is the mostly organic result of several decades of growing connections between the economies of the world. However, the financial framework that has come about from globalization has the potential to be abused by economically powerful nations to exert undue influence over less-developed countries.







          share|improve this answer












          share|improve this answer



          share|improve this answer










          answered 1 hour ago









          GramatikGramatik

          7,00931844




          7,00931844







          • 1





            You name a number of good points, and I especially like how you say globalization has the potential to develop to allow abuse by bigger countries. Though, just to play devil's advocate, isn't that the same with imperialism? The countries that started off stronger (at some point, e.g. ships and bullets) had the means to conquer other countries and become even stronger. That sounds very similar to stronger companies (and in turn countries) getting stronger whereas the other countries are unable to compete. Or it could be that that's just a Darwinist thing that could be applied to most systems.

            – JJJ
            1 hour ago












          • 1





            You name a number of good points, and I especially like how you say globalization has the potential to develop to allow abuse by bigger countries. Though, just to play devil's advocate, isn't that the same with imperialism? The countries that started off stronger (at some point, e.g. ships and bullets) had the means to conquer other countries and become even stronger. That sounds very similar to stronger companies (and in turn countries) getting stronger whereas the other countries are unable to compete. Or it could be that that's just a Darwinist thing that could be applied to most systems.

            – JJJ
            1 hour ago







          1




          1





          You name a number of good points, and I especially like how you say globalization has the potential to develop to allow abuse by bigger countries. Though, just to play devil's advocate, isn't that the same with imperialism? The countries that started off stronger (at some point, e.g. ships and bullets) had the means to conquer other countries and become even stronger. That sounds very similar to stronger companies (and in turn countries) getting stronger whereas the other countries are unable to compete. Or it could be that that's just a Darwinist thing that could be applied to most systems.

          – JJJ
          1 hour ago





          You name a number of good points, and I especially like how you say globalization has the potential to develop to allow abuse by bigger countries. Though, just to play devil's advocate, isn't that the same with imperialism? The countries that started off stronger (at some point, e.g. ships and bullets) had the means to conquer other countries and become even stronger. That sounds very similar to stronger companies (and in turn countries) getting stronger whereas the other countries are unable to compete. Or it could be that that's just a Darwinist thing that could be applied to most systems.

          – JJJ
          1 hour ago

















          draft saved

          draft discarded
















































          Thanks for contributing an answer to Politics Stack Exchange!


          • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

          But avoid


          • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

          • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.

          To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.




          draft saved


          draft discarded














          StackExchange.ready(
          function ()
          StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fpolitics.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f40744%2fwhat-is-the-difference-between-globalisation-and-imperialism%23new-answer', 'question_page');

          );

          Post as a guest















          Required, but never shown





















































          Required, but never shown














          Required, but never shown












          Required, but never shown







          Required, but never shown

































          Required, but never shown














          Required, but never shown












          Required, but never shown







          Required, but never shown







          Popular posts from this blog

          Are there any AGPL-style licences that require source code modifications to be public? Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 23:30 UTC (7:30pm US/Eastern) Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Unicorn Meta Zoo #1: Why another podcast?Force derivative works to be publicAre there any GPL like licenses for Apple App Store?Do you violate the GPL if you provide source code that cannot be compiled?GPL - is it distribution to use libraries in an appliance loaned to customers?Distributing App for free which uses GPL'ed codeModifications of server software under GPL, with web/CLI interfaceDoes using an AGPLv3-licensed library prevent me from dual-licensing my own source code?Can I publish only select code under GPLv3 from a private project?Is there published precedent regarding the scope of covered work that uses AGPL software?If MIT licensed code links to GPL licensed code what should be the license of the resulting binary program?If I use a public API endpoint that has its source code licensed under AGPL in my app, do I need to disclose my source?

          2013 GY136 Descoberta | Órbita | Referências Menu de navegação«List Of Centaurs and Scattered-Disk Objects»«List of Known Trans-Neptunian Objects»

          Metrô de Los Teques Índice Linhas | Estações | Ver também | Referências Ligações externas | Menu de navegação«INSTITUCIÓN»«Mapa de rutas»originalMetrô de Los TequesC.A. Metro Los Teques |Alcaldía de Guaicaipuro – Sitio OficialGobernacion de Mirandaeeeeeee