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Derivative softwares copyrigths from a more generic software
Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)
Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Unicorn Meta Zoo #1: Why another podcast?As a Developer how should my contract be worded to protect against hackingCan software legally collect information on it's users without disclosing that it is doing so?What happens when a contract agreement ends?Is it legal to lend out your computer with licensed software installed on it?Limitations of software development & scrapingSoftware License For Proprietary Software Open Only For Licensee Modification and Security Review?Who can claim copyrights on Machine Learning models?Tools of the trade, software implicationsCan creative element owners claim copyright on Machine Learning models or its output?software copyright : implementing the same class structure but for different specific clients and purpose
Imagine consultancy C has a generic software for analyzing data S.
Now C has a client C1 and from the software S it derives a software S1 to analyzed some specific data for C1. The overall dependency may be the same but the overall structure and purpose is specific to the need of client C1 which owns the IP (copyrights) over S1. Again, C has another client C2 and again they do something specific to analyze the data of that company C2 with software S2. C2 owns the IP (copyrights) over S2. Since both these softwares S1, S2 are derivative work of S is there any infringements betweeen C1 and C2?
copyright united-kingdom intellectual-property contract software
asked Oct 18 '18 at 15:46
bbbbbb
1083
bumped to the homepage by Community♦ 12 mins ago
This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
add a comment |
Imagine consultancy C has a generic software for analyzing data S.
Now C has a client C1 and from the software S it derives a software S1 to analyzed some specific data for C1. The overall dependency may be the same but the overall structure and purpose is specific to the need of client C1 which owns the IP (copyrights) over S1. Again, C has another client C2 and again they do something specific to analyze the data of that company C2 with software S2. C2 owns the IP (copyrights) over S2. Since both these softwares S1, S2 are derivative work of S is there any infringements betweeen C1 and C2?
copyright united-kingdom intellectual-property contract software
asked Oct 18 '18 at 15:46
bbbbbb
1083
bumped to the homepage by Community♦ 12 mins ago
This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
add a comment |
Imagine consultancy C has a generic software for analyzing data S.
Now C has a client C1 and from the software S it derives a software S1 to analyzed some specific data for C1. The overall dependency may be the same but the overall structure and purpose is specific to the need of client C1 which owns the IP (copyrights) over S1. Again, C has another client C2 and again they do something specific to analyze the data of that company C2 with software S2. C2 owns the IP (copyrights) over S2. Since both these softwares S1, S2 are derivative work of S is there any infringements betweeen C1 and C2?
copyright united-kingdom intellectual-property contract software
asked Oct 18 '18 at 15:46
bbbbbb
1083
Imagine consultancy C has a generic software for analyzing data S.
Now C has a client C1 and from the software S it derives a software S1 to analyzed some specific data for C1. The overall dependency may be the same but the overall structure and purpose is specific to the need of client C1 which owns the IP (copyrights) over S1. Again, C has another client C2 and again they do something specific to analyze the data of that company C2 with software S2. C2 owns the IP (copyrights) over S2. Since both these softwares S1, S2 are derivative work of S is there any infringements betweeen C1 and C2?
copyright united-kingdom intellectual-property contract software
copyright united-kingdom intellectual-property contract software
asked Oct 18 '18 at 15:46
bbbbbb
1083
asked Oct 18 '18 at 15:46
bbbbbb
1083
asked Oct 18 '18 at 15:46
bbbbbb
1083
asked Oct 18 '18 at 15:46
bbbbbb
1083
asked Oct 18 '18 at 15:46
bbbbbb
1083
1083
bumped to the homepage by Community♦ 12 mins ago
This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
bumped to the homepage by Community♦ 12 mins ago
This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
add a comment |
add a comment |
1 Answer
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If the copyright to S is owned by the consultancy C, and both S1 and S2 are derivative works of S, but not of each other, then C has the right to sell S1 to C1 and S2 to C2, and there is no infringement. However C should probably notify both C1 and C2 "The software created for you is a derivative work based on generic software created by C. C retains the copyright on this base software." That way neither C1 nor C2 will be mislead into thinking that they own the rights to S. I don't know if such notification is mandatory, but I would think it good practice at least.
answered Oct 18 '18 at 18:17
David SiegelDavid Siegel
17.1k3665
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If the copyright to S is owned by the consultancy C, and both S1 and S2 are derivative works of S, but not of each other, then C has the right to sell S1 to C1 and S2 to C2, and there is no infringement. However C should probably notify both C1 and C2 "The software created for you is a derivative work based on generic software created by C. C retains the copyright on this base software." That way neither C1 nor C2 will be mislead into thinking that they own the rights to S. I don't know if such notification is mandatory, but I would think it good practice at least.
answered Oct 18 '18 at 18:17
David SiegelDavid Siegel
17.1k3665
add a comment |
If the copyright to S is owned by the consultancy C, and both S1 and S2 are derivative works of S, but not of each other, then C has the right to sell S1 to C1 and S2 to C2, and there is no infringement. However C should probably notify both C1 and C2 "The software created for you is a derivative work based on generic software created by C. C retains the copyright on this base software." That way neither C1 nor C2 will be mislead into thinking that they own the rights to S. I don't know if such notification is mandatory, but I would think it good practice at least.
answered Oct 18 '18 at 18:17
David SiegelDavid Siegel
17.1k3665
add a comment |
If the copyright to S is owned by the consultancy C, and both S1 and S2 are derivative works of S, but not of each other, then C has the right to sell S1 to C1 and S2 to C2, and there is no infringement. However C should probably notify both C1 and C2 "The software created for you is a derivative work based on generic software created by C. C retains the copyright on this base software." That way neither C1 nor C2 will be mislead into thinking that they own the rights to S. I don't know if such notification is mandatory, but I would think it good practice at least.
answered Oct 18 '18 at 18:17
David SiegelDavid Siegel
17.1k3665
If the copyright to S is owned by the consultancy C, and both S1 and S2 are derivative works of S, but not of each other, then C has the right to sell S1 to C1 and S2 to C2, and there is no infringement. However C should probably notify both C1 and C2 "The software created for you is a derivative work based on generic software created by C. C retains the copyright on this base software." That way neither C1 nor C2 will be mislead into thinking that they own the rights to S. I don't know if such notification is mandatory, but I would think it good practice at least.
answered Oct 18 '18 at 18:17
David SiegelDavid Siegel
17.1k3665
answered Oct 18 '18 at 18:17
David SiegelDavid Siegel
17.1k3665
answered Oct 18 '18 at 18:17
David SiegelDavid Siegel
17.1k3665
answered Oct 18 '18 at 18:17
David SiegelDavid Siegel
17.1k3665
17.1k3665
add a comment |
add a comment |
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