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Order between one to one functions and their inverses
Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 23:30 UTC (7:30pm US/Eastern)many to one functionsHow to decide if a given function is even, odd, periodic, or one-to-one?Functions and inverses proofProof: if the graphs of $y=f(x)$ and $y=f^-1(x)$ intersect, they do so on the line $y=x$Visual difference between strictly concave and not strictly concaveA question from the dreams realmOn left and right inverses of functionsDifference between surfaces/path given by functions and parametrised curvesAre continuous orthogonal functions always paired in even and odd symmetric combinations, with respect to their domain?On Graphing Polynomials, And The Behaviour Of Such Graphs At Their Ends
$begingroup$
Let $f,g :R to R $ one to one functions such that
$f(x)< g(x), forall x in R $
Is it true that $f^-1(x)>g^-1(x), forall x in R$??
I'd say yes, thinking at their graphs: if the graph of f is below the graph of g, when we take the symmetry with respect to the line $y=x$ the graph of $f^-1(x)$ will be above the graph of $g^-1$. But i am interested in a rigorously formulated proof . If it is true...
functions
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $f,g :R to R $ one to one functions such that
$f(x)< g(x), forall x in R $
Is it true that $f^-1(x)>g^-1(x), forall x in R$??
I'd say yes, thinking at their graphs: if the graph of f is below the graph of g, when we take the symmetry with respect to the line $y=x$ the graph of $f^-1(x)$ will be above the graph of $g^-1$. But i am interested in a rigorously formulated proof . If it is true...
functions
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $f,g :R to R $ one to one functions such that
$f(x)< g(x), forall x in R $
Is it true that $f^-1(x)>g^-1(x), forall x in R$??
I'd say yes, thinking at their graphs: if the graph of f is below the graph of g, when we take the symmetry with respect to the line $y=x$ the graph of $f^-1(x)$ will be above the graph of $g^-1$. But i am interested in a rigorously formulated proof . If it is true...
functions
$endgroup$
Let $f,g :R to R $ one to one functions such that
$f(x)< g(x), forall x in R $
Is it true that $f^-1(x)>g^-1(x), forall x in R$??
I'd say yes, thinking at their graphs: if the graph of f is below the graph of g, when we take the symmetry with respect to the line $y=x$ the graph of $f^-1(x)$ will be above the graph of $g^-1$. But i am interested in a rigorously formulated proof . If it is true...
functions
functions
asked 4 hours ago
amarius8312amarius8312
29018
29018
add a comment |
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
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oldest
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$begingroup$
No, if the graph of $g(x)$ is above the graph of $f(x)$, then the graph of $g^-1(x)$ is to the right of the graph of $f^-1(x)$. If these functions are increasing, then being to the right of another function is the same as being below it. However, if they are decreasing, then being to the right of another function is the same as being above it.
For a concrete counterexample, take $f(x)=-x$ and $g(x)=-x+1$. Then $f^-1(x)=-x$ and $g^-1(x)=-x+1$, so $g^-1(x)>f^-1(x)$ for all $x$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Right!
I'd say like this:
Let $f^-1(x)=a, g^-1(x)=b$
So we have $x=f(a)=g(b)$
Then from the hypothesis $g(b)>f(b)$ so $f(a)>f(b)$
And if we assume that f is strictly increasing it follows that $a>b$
So it's sufficient to add the condition that $f$ is increasing,
$g$ doesn't need to be.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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2 Answers
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2 Answers
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$begingroup$
No, if the graph of $g(x)$ is above the graph of $f(x)$, then the graph of $g^-1(x)$ is to the right of the graph of $f^-1(x)$. If these functions are increasing, then being to the right of another function is the same as being below it. However, if they are decreasing, then being to the right of another function is the same as being above it.
For a concrete counterexample, take $f(x)=-x$ and $g(x)=-x+1$. Then $f^-1(x)=-x$ and $g^-1(x)=-x+1$, so $g^-1(x)>f^-1(x)$ for all $x$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
No, if the graph of $g(x)$ is above the graph of $f(x)$, then the graph of $g^-1(x)$ is to the right of the graph of $f^-1(x)$. If these functions are increasing, then being to the right of another function is the same as being below it. However, if they are decreasing, then being to the right of another function is the same as being above it.
For a concrete counterexample, take $f(x)=-x$ and $g(x)=-x+1$. Then $f^-1(x)=-x$ and $g^-1(x)=-x+1$, so $g^-1(x)>f^-1(x)$ for all $x$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
No, if the graph of $g(x)$ is above the graph of $f(x)$, then the graph of $g^-1(x)$ is to the right of the graph of $f^-1(x)$. If these functions are increasing, then being to the right of another function is the same as being below it. However, if they are decreasing, then being to the right of another function is the same as being above it.
For a concrete counterexample, take $f(x)=-x$ and $g(x)=-x+1$. Then $f^-1(x)=-x$ and $g^-1(x)=-x+1$, so $g^-1(x)>f^-1(x)$ for all $x$.
$endgroup$
No, if the graph of $g(x)$ is above the graph of $f(x)$, then the graph of $g^-1(x)$ is to the right of the graph of $f^-1(x)$. If these functions are increasing, then being to the right of another function is the same as being below it. However, if they are decreasing, then being to the right of another function is the same as being above it.
For a concrete counterexample, take $f(x)=-x$ and $g(x)=-x+1$. Then $f^-1(x)=-x$ and $g^-1(x)=-x+1$, so $g^-1(x)>f^-1(x)$ for all $x$.
answered 4 hours ago
kccukccu
11.6k11231
11.6k11231
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Right!
I'd say like this:
Let $f^-1(x)=a, g^-1(x)=b$
So we have $x=f(a)=g(b)$
Then from the hypothesis $g(b)>f(b)$ so $f(a)>f(b)$
And if we assume that f is strictly increasing it follows that $a>b$
So it's sufficient to add the condition that $f$ is increasing,
$g$ doesn't need to be.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Right!
I'd say like this:
Let $f^-1(x)=a, g^-1(x)=b$
So we have $x=f(a)=g(b)$
Then from the hypothesis $g(b)>f(b)$ so $f(a)>f(b)$
And if we assume that f is strictly increasing it follows that $a>b$
So it's sufficient to add the condition that $f$ is increasing,
$g$ doesn't need to be.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Right!
I'd say like this:
Let $f^-1(x)=a, g^-1(x)=b$
So we have $x=f(a)=g(b)$
Then from the hypothesis $g(b)>f(b)$ so $f(a)>f(b)$
And if we assume that f is strictly increasing it follows that $a>b$
So it's sufficient to add the condition that $f$ is increasing,
$g$ doesn't need to be.
$endgroup$
Right!
I'd say like this:
Let $f^-1(x)=a, g^-1(x)=b$
So we have $x=f(a)=g(b)$
Then from the hypothesis $g(b)>f(b)$ so $f(a)>f(b)$
And if we assume that f is strictly increasing it follows that $a>b$
So it's sufficient to add the condition that $f$ is increasing,
$g$ doesn't need to be.
answered 3 hours ago
amarius8312amarius8312
29018
29018
add a comment |
add a comment |
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