Executing a stored procedure which selects and inserts into tables in SQL ServerSQL Server stored procedure permissionsHow to change database owner for login and database created inside stored procedure?Update code works in manual stored procedure but not when run as SQL Server Agent JobMost efficient way to insert rows into a temp table in a stored procedureSQL Server : create table within stored procedureSQL Server CREATE and DROP TABLE Permissions in Stored Procedure Onlystored procedure can select and update tables in other databases - minimal permissions grantedStored Procedure Processing and Error LogGive execute permission to user which does not have execute permission for specific stored procedureHow to create a stored procedure that can insert a record into two tables [Informix]
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Executing a stored procedure which selects and inserts into tables in SQL Server
SQL Server stored procedure permissionsHow to change database owner for login and database created inside stored procedure?Update code works in manual stored procedure but not when run as SQL Server Agent JobMost efficient way to insert rows into a temp table in a stored procedureSQL Server : create table within stored procedureSQL Server CREATE and DROP TABLE Permissions in Stored Procedure Onlystored procedure can select and update tables in other databases - minimal permissions grantedStored Procedure Processing and Error LogGive execute permission to user which does not have execute permission for specific stored procedureHow to create a stored procedure that can insert a record into two tables [Informix]
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I am a bit confused on the permissions required to execute stored procedure. For example, if you have 2 tables and a stored procedure which reads data from Table1 and inserts data into Table2, will execute permission on the stored procedure and select permission on the tables be enough? In theory I am finding that this is given as a solution but practically I am finding that a user would need execute permission on the stored procedure, select permission on the tables and insert permission on Table2.
sql-server stored-procedures
asked 2 hours ago
user1930901user1930901
494
add a comment |
I am a bit confused on the permissions required to execute stored procedure. For example, if you have 2 tables and a stored procedure which reads data from Table1 and inserts data into Table2, will execute permission on the stored procedure and select permission on the tables be enough? In theory I am finding that this is given as a solution but practically I am finding that a user would need execute permission on the stored procedure, select permission on the tables and insert permission on Table2.
sql-server stored-procedures
asked 2 hours ago
user1930901user1930901
494
If you are finding more than just permissions to execute on the proc are needed, it means the ownership chain is broken. Are the objects in the same database and schema?
– Dan Guzman
1 hour ago
add a comment |
I am a bit confused on the permissions required to execute stored procedure. For example, if you have 2 tables and a stored procedure which reads data from Table1 and inserts data into Table2, will execute permission on the stored procedure and select permission on the tables be enough? In theory I am finding that this is given as a solution but practically I am finding that a user would need execute permission on the stored procedure, select permission on the tables and insert permission on Table2.
sql-server stored-procedures
asked 2 hours ago
user1930901user1930901
494
I am a bit confused on the permissions required to execute stored procedure. For example, if you have 2 tables and a stored procedure which reads data from Table1 and inserts data into Table2, will execute permission on the stored procedure and select permission on the tables be enough? In theory I am finding that this is given as a solution but practically I am finding that a user would need execute permission on the stored procedure, select permission on the tables and insert permission on Table2.
sql-server stored-procedures
sql-server stored-procedures
asked 2 hours ago
user1930901user1930901
494
asked 2 hours ago
user1930901user1930901
494
asked 2 hours ago
user1930901user1930901
494
asked 2 hours ago
user1930901user1930901
494
asked 2 hours ago
user1930901user1930901
494
494
If you are finding more than just permissions to execute on the proc are needed, it means the ownership chain is broken. Are the objects in the same database and schema?
– Dan Guzman
1 hour ago
add a comment |
If you are finding more than just permissions to execute on the proc are needed, it means the ownership chain is broken. Are the objects in the same database and schema?
– Dan Guzman
1 hour ago
If you are finding more than just permissions to execute on the proc are needed, it means the ownership chain is broken. Are the objects in the same database and schema?
– Dan Guzman
1 hour ago
If you are finding more than just permissions to execute on the proc are needed, it means the ownership chain is broken. Are the objects in the same database and schema?
– Dan Guzman
1 hour ago
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
No, you don't need to grant explicit permission on Table1 and Table2, that's one of the objective of embedding code in stored procedure and that's where encapsulation feature comes into effect.
Please check below link from Microsoft:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dotnet/framework/data/adonet/sql/managing-permissions-with-stored-procedures-in-sql-server
Stored Procedure Execution
Stored procedures take advantage of ownership chaining to provide access to data so that users do not need to have explicit permission to access database objects. An ownership chain exists when objects that access each other sequentially are owned by the same user. For example, a stored procedure can call other stored procedures, or a stored procedure can access multiple tables. If all objects in the chain of execution have the same owner, then SQL Server only checks the EXECUTE permission for the caller, not the caller's permissions on other objects. Therefore you need to grant only EXECUTE permissions on stored procedures; you can revoke or deny all permissions on the underlying tables.
use below code to grant execute permission:
USE database_name
go
GRANT EXECUTE ON USP_NAME
TO User_name;
GO
Hope above helps.
answered 1 hour ago
Learning_DBAdminLearning_DBAdmin
695215
add a comment |
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No, you don't need to grant explicit permission on Table1 and Table2, that's one of the objective of embedding code in stored procedure and that's where encapsulation feature comes into effect.
Please check below link from Microsoft:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dotnet/framework/data/adonet/sql/managing-permissions-with-stored-procedures-in-sql-server
Stored Procedure Execution
Stored procedures take advantage of ownership chaining to provide access to data so that users do not need to have explicit permission to access database objects. An ownership chain exists when objects that access each other sequentially are owned by the same user. For example, a stored procedure can call other stored procedures, or a stored procedure can access multiple tables. If all objects in the chain of execution have the same owner, then SQL Server only checks the EXECUTE permission for the caller, not the caller's permissions on other objects. Therefore you need to grant only EXECUTE permissions on stored procedures; you can revoke or deny all permissions on the underlying tables.
use below code to grant execute permission:
USE database_name
go
GRANT EXECUTE ON USP_NAME
TO User_name;
GO
Hope above helps.
answered 1 hour ago
Learning_DBAdminLearning_DBAdmin
695215
add a comment |
No, you don't need to grant explicit permission on Table1 and Table2, that's one of the objective of embedding code in stored procedure and that's where encapsulation feature comes into effect.
Please check below link from Microsoft:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dotnet/framework/data/adonet/sql/managing-permissions-with-stored-procedures-in-sql-server
Stored Procedure Execution
Stored procedures take advantage of ownership chaining to provide access to data so that users do not need to have explicit permission to access database objects. An ownership chain exists when objects that access each other sequentially are owned by the same user. For example, a stored procedure can call other stored procedures, or a stored procedure can access multiple tables. If all objects in the chain of execution have the same owner, then SQL Server only checks the EXECUTE permission for the caller, not the caller's permissions on other objects. Therefore you need to grant only EXECUTE permissions on stored procedures; you can revoke or deny all permissions on the underlying tables.
use below code to grant execute permission:
USE database_name
go
GRANT EXECUTE ON USP_NAME
TO User_name;
GO
Hope above helps.
answered 1 hour ago
Learning_DBAdminLearning_DBAdmin
695215
add a comment |
No, you don't need to grant explicit permission on Table1 and Table2, that's one of the objective of embedding code in stored procedure and that's where encapsulation feature comes into effect.
Please check below link from Microsoft:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dotnet/framework/data/adonet/sql/managing-permissions-with-stored-procedures-in-sql-server
Stored Procedure Execution
Stored procedures take advantage of ownership chaining to provide access to data so that users do not need to have explicit permission to access database objects. An ownership chain exists when objects that access each other sequentially are owned by the same user. For example, a stored procedure can call other stored procedures, or a stored procedure can access multiple tables. If all objects in the chain of execution have the same owner, then SQL Server only checks the EXECUTE permission for the caller, not the caller's permissions on other objects. Therefore you need to grant only EXECUTE permissions on stored procedures; you can revoke or deny all permissions on the underlying tables.
use below code to grant execute permission:
USE database_name
go
GRANT EXECUTE ON USP_NAME
TO User_name;
GO
Hope above helps.
answered 1 hour ago
Learning_DBAdminLearning_DBAdmin
695215
No, you don't need to grant explicit permission on Table1 and Table2, that's one of the objective of embedding code in stored procedure and that's where encapsulation feature comes into effect.
Please check below link from Microsoft:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dotnet/framework/data/adonet/sql/managing-permissions-with-stored-procedures-in-sql-server
Stored Procedure Execution
Stored procedures take advantage of ownership chaining to provide access to data so that users do not need to have explicit permission to access database objects. An ownership chain exists when objects that access each other sequentially are owned by the same user. For example, a stored procedure can call other stored procedures, or a stored procedure can access multiple tables. If all objects in the chain of execution have the same owner, then SQL Server only checks the EXECUTE permission for the caller, not the caller's permissions on other objects. Therefore you need to grant only EXECUTE permissions on stored procedures; you can revoke or deny all permissions on the underlying tables.
use below code to grant execute permission:
USE database_name
go
GRANT EXECUTE ON USP_NAME
TO User_name;
GO
Hope above helps.
answered 1 hour ago
Learning_DBAdminLearning_DBAdmin
695215
answered 1 hour ago
Learning_DBAdminLearning_DBAdmin
695215
answered 1 hour ago
Learning_DBAdminLearning_DBAdmin
695215
answered 1 hour ago
Learning_DBAdminLearning_DBAdmin
695215
695215
add a comment |
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If you are finding more than just permissions to execute on the proc are needed, it means the ownership chain is broken. Are the objects in the same database and schema?
– Dan Guzman
1 hour ago