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Is a "Democratic" Feudal System Possible?

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Is a “Democratic” Feudal System Possible?



The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are InRe-enforcing a feudal societyHumans moved to different planetsWould generation ships encourage a caste system?How to reconcile a feudal system with a congressional/parliamentary democracy…?Order of Solar System ColonizationHow can I corrupt a country's capital city so as to give a small group power while keeping the illusion of a democratic republic?How to colonize an inhabited alien planet?Can a world government convince a modern public to support the creation of child soldiers?Army composition of feudal gunpowder societyHow well would a society 35,000 years in the future remember today?










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I am considering a story where a group of human colonists looking to colonize an alien world come across another human society on an alien world on the other side of a wormhole. The colonists crash land on this world after an incident and discover this society. As it turns out, the humans on this world are actually descendants of many people abducted from earth by alien "overlords" over the course of several millennia seeking to use them for a social experiment.



The purpose of said experiential was to see how these people, from various regions of earth and time, would interact with each other over the course of these millennia. Fast forward in time and these humans and their descendants have populated this world, known as Rhye, and have become rather technologically advanced, say beginning of twentieth century Earth, but with some near future technology. Keep in mind this tech is at least one-two hundred years behind the tech the colonists have. The colonists, however, despite their shock to see this human society on this world, discover that these people basically recreated Earth. There are nations, borders, wars and even a UN often referred to as the "Planetary Council".



But what really catches their attention is the fact that these humans, given the different eras of human history they came from, have developed a medieval democratic feudal society where social class and upbringing determines your status but extensive capitalism and representative governments are still a thing. The governments are typically run by the more wealthy and superior classes. Social rank is predetermined by birth but one can work their way out of or into another class if they choose. But they get one opportunity. There are Templars, military orders that protect the nation's and kingdoms; but at the same time there are republics, modern government branches, air forces, armies, navies, and even space agencies.



So my question is as follows: Is a Democratic-Feudal society a stable society? Please let me know if I need to add anything detail wise if you need clarification.










share|improve this question











$endgroup$







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    What you are describing seems to be more of a oligarchy and not a feudal society.
    $endgroup$
    – Sebastian
    4 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    A cynical person might suggest that societies only seem stable, and most stay that way due to lucky circumstances...
    $endgroup$
    – Starfish Prime
    3 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Anyway, I don't really have enough to form a useful answer, but you might consider a society that has a "voting class" to be a step towards your theoretical society. In the limit, you get something like the prince-electors.
    $endgroup$
    – Starfish Prime
    3 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    You can get a feudal Republic, but not a true feudal Democracy (because the latter, unlike the former, implies Egalitarianism)
    $endgroup$
    – Alexander
    2 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    The words "feudalism" and "government" are barely compatible. There were indeed feudal societies which had governments, but they are not what you are thinking of. (Or maybe they are? Were you thinking of the Ottoman Empire?) However, the words "feudalism" and "capitalism" are utterly incompatible. A society is either feudal or capitalist. It's like asking for a communist society with widespread capitalism.
    $endgroup$
    – AlexP
    45 mins ago















2












$begingroup$


I am considering a story where a group of human colonists looking to colonize an alien world come across another human society on an alien world on the other side of a wormhole. The colonists crash land on this world after an incident and discover this society. As it turns out, the humans on this world are actually descendants of many people abducted from earth by alien "overlords" over the course of several millennia seeking to use them for a social experiment.



The purpose of said experiential was to see how these people, from various regions of earth and time, would interact with each other over the course of these millennia. Fast forward in time and these humans and their descendants have populated this world, known as Rhye, and have become rather technologically advanced, say beginning of twentieth century Earth, but with some near future technology. Keep in mind this tech is at least one-two hundred years behind the tech the colonists have. The colonists, however, despite their shock to see this human society on this world, discover that these people basically recreated Earth. There are nations, borders, wars and even a UN often referred to as the "Planetary Council".



But what really catches their attention is the fact that these humans, given the different eras of human history they came from, have developed a medieval democratic feudal society where social class and upbringing determines your status but extensive capitalism and representative governments are still a thing. The governments are typically run by the more wealthy and superior classes. Social rank is predetermined by birth but one can work their way out of or into another class if they choose. But they get one opportunity. There are Templars, military orders that protect the nation's and kingdoms; but at the same time there are republics, modern government branches, air forces, armies, navies, and even space agencies.



So my question is as follows: Is a Democratic-Feudal society a stable society? Please let me know if I need to add anything detail wise if you need clarification.










share|improve this question











$endgroup$







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    What you are describing seems to be more of a oligarchy and not a feudal society.
    $endgroup$
    – Sebastian
    4 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    A cynical person might suggest that societies only seem stable, and most stay that way due to lucky circumstances...
    $endgroup$
    – Starfish Prime
    3 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Anyway, I don't really have enough to form a useful answer, but you might consider a society that has a "voting class" to be a step towards your theoretical society. In the limit, you get something like the prince-electors.
    $endgroup$
    – Starfish Prime
    3 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    You can get a feudal Republic, but not a true feudal Democracy (because the latter, unlike the former, implies Egalitarianism)
    $endgroup$
    – Alexander
    2 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    The words "feudalism" and "government" are barely compatible. There were indeed feudal societies which had governments, but they are not what you are thinking of. (Or maybe they are? Were you thinking of the Ottoman Empire?) However, the words "feudalism" and "capitalism" are utterly incompatible. A society is either feudal or capitalist. It's like asking for a communist society with widespread capitalism.
    $endgroup$
    – AlexP
    45 mins ago













2












2








2





$begingroup$


I am considering a story where a group of human colonists looking to colonize an alien world come across another human society on an alien world on the other side of a wormhole. The colonists crash land on this world after an incident and discover this society. As it turns out, the humans on this world are actually descendants of many people abducted from earth by alien "overlords" over the course of several millennia seeking to use them for a social experiment.



The purpose of said experiential was to see how these people, from various regions of earth and time, would interact with each other over the course of these millennia. Fast forward in time and these humans and their descendants have populated this world, known as Rhye, and have become rather technologically advanced, say beginning of twentieth century Earth, but with some near future technology. Keep in mind this tech is at least one-two hundred years behind the tech the colonists have. The colonists, however, despite their shock to see this human society on this world, discover that these people basically recreated Earth. There are nations, borders, wars and even a UN often referred to as the "Planetary Council".



But what really catches their attention is the fact that these humans, given the different eras of human history they came from, have developed a medieval democratic feudal society where social class and upbringing determines your status but extensive capitalism and representative governments are still a thing. The governments are typically run by the more wealthy and superior classes. Social rank is predetermined by birth but one can work their way out of or into another class if they choose. But they get one opportunity. There are Templars, military orders that protect the nation's and kingdoms; but at the same time there are republics, modern government branches, air forces, armies, navies, and even space agencies.



So my question is as follows: Is a Democratic-Feudal society a stable society? Please let me know if I need to add anything detail wise if you need clarification.










share|improve this question











$endgroup$




I am considering a story where a group of human colonists looking to colonize an alien world come across another human society on an alien world on the other side of a wormhole. The colonists crash land on this world after an incident and discover this society. As it turns out, the humans on this world are actually descendants of many people abducted from earth by alien "overlords" over the course of several millennia seeking to use them for a social experiment.



The purpose of said experiential was to see how these people, from various regions of earth and time, would interact with each other over the course of these millennia. Fast forward in time and these humans and their descendants have populated this world, known as Rhye, and have become rather technologically advanced, say beginning of twentieth century Earth, but with some near future technology. Keep in mind this tech is at least one-two hundred years behind the tech the colonists have. The colonists, however, despite their shock to see this human society on this world, discover that these people basically recreated Earth. There are nations, borders, wars and even a UN often referred to as the "Planetary Council".



But what really catches their attention is the fact that these humans, given the different eras of human history they came from, have developed a medieval democratic feudal society where social class and upbringing determines your status but extensive capitalism and representative governments are still a thing. The governments are typically run by the more wealthy and superior classes. Social rank is predetermined by birth but one can work their way out of or into another class if they choose. But they get one opportunity. There are Templars, military orders that protect the nation's and kingdoms; but at the same time there are republics, modern government branches, air forces, armies, navies, and even space agencies.



So my question is as follows: Is a Democratic-Feudal society a stable society? Please let me know if I need to add anything detail wise if you need clarification.







society science-fiction government space-colonization






share|improve this question















share|improve this question













share|improve this question




share|improve this question








edited 3 hours ago







Noah

















asked 4 hours ago









NoahNoah

440313




440313







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    What you are describing seems to be more of a oligarchy and not a feudal society.
    $endgroup$
    – Sebastian
    4 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    A cynical person might suggest that societies only seem stable, and most stay that way due to lucky circumstances...
    $endgroup$
    – Starfish Prime
    3 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Anyway, I don't really have enough to form a useful answer, but you might consider a society that has a "voting class" to be a step towards your theoretical society. In the limit, you get something like the prince-electors.
    $endgroup$
    – Starfish Prime
    3 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    You can get a feudal Republic, but not a true feudal Democracy (because the latter, unlike the former, implies Egalitarianism)
    $endgroup$
    – Alexander
    2 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    The words "feudalism" and "government" are barely compatible. There were indeed feudal societies which had governments, but they are not what you are thinking of. (Or maybe they are? Were you thinking of the Ottoman Empire?) However, the words "feudalism" and "capitalism" are utterly incompatible. A society is either feudal or capitalist. It's like asking for a communist society with widespread capitalism.
    $endgroup$
    – AlexP
    45 mins ago












  • 1




    $begingroup$
    What you are describing seems to be more of a oligarchy and not a feudal society.
    $endgroup$
    – Sebastian
    4 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    A cynical person might suggest that societies only seem stable, and most stay that way due to lucky circumstances...
    $endgroup$
    – Starfish Prime
    3 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Anyway, I don't really have enough to form a useful answer, but you might consider a society that has a "voting class" to be a step towards your theoretical society. In the limit, you get something like the prince-electors.
    $endgroup$
    – Starfish Prime
    3 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    You can get a feudal Republic, but not a true feudal Democracy (because the latter, unlike the former, implies Egalitarianism)
    $endgroup$
    – Alexander
    2 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    The words "feudalism" and "government" are barely compatible. There were indeed feudal societies which had governments, but they are not what you are thinking of. (Or maybe they are? Were you thinking of the Ottoman Empire?) However, the words "feudalism" and "capitalism" are utterly incompatible. A society is either feudal or capitalist. It's like asking for a communist society with widespread capitalism.
    $endgroup$
    – AlexP
    45 mins ago







1




1




$begingroup$
What you are describing seems to be more of a oligarchy and not a feudal society.
$endgroup$
– Sebastian
4 hours ago




$begingroup$
What you are describing seems to be more of a oligarchy and not a feudal society.
$endgroup$
– Sebastian
4 hours ago












$begingroup$
A cynical person might suggest that societies only seem stable, and most stay that way due to lucky circumstances...
$endgroup$
– Starfish Prime
3 hours ago




$begingroup$
A cynical person might suggest that societies only seem stable, and most stay that way due to lucky circumstances...
$endgroup$
– Starfish Prime
3 hours ago




1




1




$begingroup$
Anyway, I don't really have enough to form a useful answer, but you might consider a society that has a "voting class" to be a step towards your theoretical society. In the limit, you get something like the prince-electors.
$endgroup$
– Starfish Prime
3 hours ago




$begingroup$
Anyway, I don't really have enough to form a useful answer, but you might consider a society that has a "voting class" to be a step towards your theoretical society. In the limit, you get something like the prince-electors.
$endgroup$
– Starfish Prime
3 hours ago












$begingroup$
You can get a feudal Republic, but not a true feudal Democracy (because the latter, unlike the former, implies Egalitarianism)
$endgroup$
– Alexander
2 hours ago




$begingroup$
You can get a feudal Republic, but not a true feudal Democracy (because the latter, unlike the former, implies Egalitarianism)
$endgroup$
– Alexander
2 hours ago












$begingroup$
The words "feudalism" and "government" are barely compatible. There were indeed feudal societies which had governments, but they are not what you are thinking of. (Or maybe they are? Were you thinking of the Ottoman Empire?) However, the words "feudalism" and "capitalism" are utterly incompatible. A society is either feudal or capitalist. It's like asking for a communist society with widespread capitalism.
$endgroup$
– AlexP
45 mins ago




$begingroup$
The words "feudalism" and "government" are barely compatible. There were indeed feudal societies which had governments, but they are not what you are thinking of. (Or maybe they are? Were you thinking of the Ottoman Empire?) However, the words "feudalism" and "capitalism" are utterly incompatible. A society is either feudal or capitalist. It's like asking for a communist society with widespread capitalism.
$endgroup$
– AlexP
45 mins ago










6 Answers
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Define feudalism



When you say "feudal," what do you actually mean?



Feudalism is defined by Brittanica as




the social, economic, and political conditions in western Europe
during the early Middle Ages, the long stretch of time between the 5th
and 12th centuries.




There were basically no democratic systems that existed during that time period, and limited republican systems, so by a strict definition of feudalism, the answer is a clear "No". Since there were no democratic polities that existed in Western Europe in the 5th to 12th centuries, democratic-feudalism is an oxymoron.



Do you want "feudalism" or a class stratified society with voting?



If you want the latter, then there are plenty of examples to go around.



  • In the strict medieval period of Western Europe, though mostly later than the 12th century, the Venetian Republic operated with limited male suffrage, as did several other city-states of Italy, such as Florence.

  • A less republican Late Medieval variant was the Golden Liberty of Poland, where only the nobles got to vote. This process proceeded somewhat slowly, but a landmark was the 1505 Nihil Novi an act forbidding the King from passing laws without the consent of the Sejm.

  • The paragon of a democratic yet class-based society would be England. Democracy developed slowly from the Magna Carta. By the time of the English Civil War (1640s) and Glorious Revolution (1688), the authority of Parliament, even over the King, was well established. The English Bill of Rights of 1689 established free elections to the House of Commons. The electorate was reasonably open for most of the later Middle Ages. But, an 1432 law established eligibility as landowners who held more property worth 40 shillings of rent. While this did not de jure restrict women from voting, in practice custom forbade it.

But, note, universal male suffrage did not appear until the French revolution in 1792. The first country with permanent universal male suffrage was Greece in 1844; universal suffrage was first in New Zealand in 1893 (though some territories and states, like Wyoming, had it as far back as 1869). Without a revolutionary era as happened at the end of the 18th century on actual Earth, it is unlikely that suffrage would be universal, or ever extended to all men without property.






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  • $begingroup$
    Is it possible where Lords and Kings can be elected into a position by his subjects or own class? I say feudalism where we have Kings, Lords and the lower class aka peasants. But it's more of a modern take with democratic elections and representation of the lower class. Doesn't mean they have power over the government but they do have leverage over the officials. If the peasants do not like then, they might as well expect a revolution.
    $endgroup$
    – Noah
    3 hours ago










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    I think you're in the right ballpark with Venice. The Italian city-states played around with a Republican form of governments all over the place. Genoa in particular had elections in the 11th century.
    $endgroup$
    – Michael W.
    1 hour ago






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    $begingroup$
    The definition quoted at the beginning of the answer is worthless; yes, most western European societies during the Middle Ages were feudal, but equating feudalism with what western Europeans (all of them? really?) did between the 5th and 12th century is strange. I would hope that Britannica goes on and says down the page, sorry, that was a little white lie, here is the true definition. (1) What happened in the 13th, 14th, 15th century? Did they progress to communism? (2) So the late Roman Empire and the Ottoman Empire and, notoriously, Japan, were not feudal? What were they?
    $endgroup$
    – AlexP
    38 mins ago







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    @Noah: You obviously have a very unusual definition of the word "feudalism". You really should edit the question and explain what you mean, because, for example, England to this day has "Kings, Lords and farmers" (we don't call them "peasants"). And yet England has not had a feudal society since half a millennium ago.
    $endgroup$
    – AlexP
    34 mins ago










  • $begingroup$
    This answer makes a good point. Too often people think "feudalism" is defined by the window dressing: a peerage, chivalry, chartered land ownership, serfs, and the occasional crusade. It's much more legal, economic, and political than that. And because of that, once you introduce democracy (or any other form of government) you no longer have feudalism.
    $endgroup$
    – JBH
    12 mins ago


















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One important aspect of Feudalism, and why it came about in the first place, that is often overlooked from a modern viewpoint is that Feudalism is a two way social structure:



Those who are at the top and supported by those below them aren't originally up there looking out for purely their own self interest, but rather their role in society was to be that of protector and manager.



Lower classes swear loyalty to an upper class not because they were lowly dirt dwelling scum who got nothing out of it, but rather they swear loyalty in exchange for protection, peace, and organization.



"I work this land, give you part of my yearly labour, and otherwise support you, and you and all your buddies promise to help me live in peace and good health, and keep those far off foreigners from killing all the men and running off with the gold and women..." ["And maybe I'll help you go to those foreign lands to take their stuff..."]



(Consider this social construct to the modern "I promise to work for your company, and you promise to lay me off whenever you think that might help you buy a bigger house/yacht/jet/whatever." - Humanity is weird.)



So you have multiple ways to structure things:



  • Do the lords and protectors get elected?

  • Are there multiple layers of government, based on social class, with elected elements? [In human history we have any number of examples advisers elected to government representing various class levels.]

  • A mix and match of elected/hereditary/religious titles?

At its heart, a democratic-feudal structure is no less stable than a democratic "Vote for me so I can plunder the nation for my four year term for my own/my friend's/family's benefit" politics we see today.






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  • $begingroup$
    Yes, I wanted the Lords and Kings to be elected by either the peasants or the class they are in. Preferably the former. The government can be described as military orders loyal to the government (army, navy, air force), a Congress/parlimant, the Hiearchy (the ruling class), then the King (elected head if state). Essentially, I am trying to create a near medieval society with a modern touch.
    $endgroup$
    – Noah
    3 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    I'd expect a "democratic feudalism" to be similar to an elective monarchy, except that the entire hierarchy is elected, rather than just the guy at the top.
    $endgroup$
    – Mark
    1 hour ago


















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$begingroup$

You can't have a feudal society and capitalism. Capitalism creates a plutocratic class that will fight against the feudal elite. If they fail the capitalism is crushed and feudalism remains. If they win, the feudal system is gone.



This happens because the social link in a capitalist society is money while in a feudal society are the oaths of fealty between the people. These two links can't coexist for long.



About democratic feudalism (but without capitalism): it can exist - the warlords may form noble republics where they elect their overlord and can veto decisions, something like the government of old Poland.






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  • 1




    $begingroup$
    +1. I agree. The weak link is combining capitalism with feudalism. Apart from what you said capitalism requires lots social and economic infrastructure to work, while feudalism is what states that lack such infrastructure use. Any overlap would be temporary and full of conflict. As for democracy, the warlords themselves might also be elected. Having soldiers, warriors or pirates elect their leaders is fairly common actually. But it would require that the fiefs are given to the military unit not individual people, so it would differ from feudalism as we know.
    $endgroup$
    – Ville Niemi
    1 hour ago


















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$begingroup$

A feudal system can have an "electoral system": for instance, usually the Emperor of the Holy Roman Empire was elected by a council of the most important feudal lord



Usually, a feudal system (but it happens for every system featuring a ruling oligarchy by birth) goes into crisis when a bourgeoisie (commoners who are able to accumulate a considerable wealth) rises. These new riches basically want to have the right to join the administration of the power. It happened for instance in the ancient Rome, in Italy and North Europe during the rise of the communes, in the 18th century France



In the Middle Age, usually the people in the countryside were under the rule of the feudal lords, while the people living in the cities were free from feudal rules, and could become "owners of themselves" and start a work as artisans or merchants, creating an embryo of bourgeoisie and this way triggering the rise of communes in late Middle Age.



So, in my idea a possibility would be a partial feudal-democratic system: the society is divided into free cities (under democratic rule) and rural countries (under feudal rule). Feudal lords should of course follow the laws and treat well their subjects, in order not to lose their peasants. At the same time, people who don't like democracy or feel that they would live better under the protection of a ruler could leave the cities and become subjects of the feudal lords.

Every time the emperor dies or resigns, the feudal lords and the representatives of the cities would elect a new emperor.



The problem is that at some point, the industrial revolution will happen (it seems unavoidable, in order to reach a present-day-like development), which would create an unbalance in the equilibrium between country and city (basically, cities will start to exponentially accumulate wealth and population).

To keep the feudal system, we can speculate that a kind of subdivision would spontaneously be established (feudal lords could found their own factories, more efficient thanks to the feudal labor, but less innovative with respect to urban factories), that could live up to present day.






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    1












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    I could see all three of these factors dovetailing quite nicely (if you can use dovetail for 3 things...).



    Feudalism

    This gives us classes: lords, vassals, peasants, royalty, etc. At each level you receive different rights, privileges and responsibilities. Perhaps only lords can vote or maybe all classes can vote but only lords and royalty can own land. These distinctions are up to you and don't greatly impact the other two aspects.



    Democracy

    You don't vote for king! And maybe even prince, financial adviser or some number of lords. Again, there is a large amount of sway you can exert here depending on just how democratic you want your world to be.



    Capitalism

    Instead of marriage, knighthood or other methods of moving from class to class, you move up in rank with money. This isn't to say that you can become king this way as that still requires a vote (but money does tend to help with that). As you accumulate money you gain rights thanks to moving up in class. Poor peasant Bill Gates makes himself a lord of a minor or major kingdom (depending on where you draw the voting line).



    All together you have what might look shockingly like our modern society except that we have King Trump and he doesn't just pretend to wield absolute power, he does and he's king for life. Instead of money allowing you to influence political decisions, it allows you to make them. Like all political systems, the flaws will become apparent the longer it's around and this system would by no means be perfect.






    share|improve this answer









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      0












      $begingroup$

      Feudalism has three main parts, lords, lands, and vassals. The lords own the lands and lords owe their loyalty to other lords supplying mutual military and economic support. The peasantry are tied to the land. Nothing says the lords can't be elected by the peasants they rule. Involving complex capitalism would make things a little more complex. A corporation might fit in with the lords, owning land and the workers on it while pledging loyalty to a lord or other corporation.



      A strict social hierarchy is not necessarily a requirement of feudalism though.






      share|improve this answer











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        6 Answers
        6






        active

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        6 Answers
        6






        active

        oldest

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        active

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        active

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        5












        $begingroup$

        Define feudalism



        When you say "feudal," what do you actually mean?



        Feudalism is defined by Brittanica as




        the social, economic, and political conditions in western Europe
        during the early Middle Ages, the long stretch of time between the 5th
        and 12th centuries.




        There were basically no democratic systems that existed during that time period, and limited republican systems, so by a strict definition of feudalism, the answer is a clear "No". Since there were no democratic polities that existed in Western Europe in the 5th to 12th centuries, democratic-feudalism is an oxymoron.



        Do you want "feudalism" or a class stratified society with voting?



        If you want the latter, then there are plenty of examples to go around.



        • In the strict medieval period of Western Europe, though mostly later than the 12th century, the Venetian Republic operated with limited male suffrage, as did several other city-states of Italy, such as Florence.

        • A less republican Late Medieval variant was the Golden Liberty of Poland, where only the nobles got to vote. This process proceeded somewhat slowly, but a landmark was the 1505 Nihil Novi an act forbidding the King from passing laws without the consent of the Sejm.

        • The paragon of a democratic yet class-based society would be England. Democracy developed slowly from the Magna Carta. By the time of the English Civil War (1640s) and Glorious Revolution (1688), the authority of Parliament, even over the King, was well established. The English Bill of Rights of 1689 established free elections to the House of Commons. The electorate was reasonably open for most of the later Middle Ages. But, an 1432 law established eligibility as landowners who held more property worth 40 shillings of rent. While this did not de jure restrict women from voting, in practice custom forbade it.

        But, note, universal male suffrage did not appear until the French revolution in 1792. The first country with permanent universal male suffrage was Greece in 1844; universal suffrage was first in New Zealand in 1893 (though some territories and states, like Wyoming, had it as far back as 1869). Without a revolutionary era as happened at the end of the 18th century on actual Earth, it is unlikely that suffrage would be universal, or ever extended to all men without property.






        share|improve this answer











        $endgroup$












        • $begingroup$
          Is it possible where Lords and Kings can be elected into a position by his subjects or own class? I say feudalism where we have Kings, Lords and the lower class aka peasants. But it's more of a modern take with democratic elections and representation of the lower class. Doesn't mean they have power over the government but they do have leverage over the officials. If the peasants do not like then, they might as well expect a revolution.
          $endgroup$
          – Noah
          3 hours ago










        • $begingroup$
          I think you're in the right ballpark with Venice. The Italian city-states played around with a Republican form of governments all over the place. Genoa in particular had elections in the 11th century.
          $endgroup$
          – Michael W.
          1 hour ago






        • 1




          $begingroup$
          The definition quoted at the beginning of the answer is worthless; yes, most western European societies during the Middle Ages were feudal, but equating feudalism with what western Europeans (all of them? really?) did between the 5th and 12th century is strange. I would hope that Britannica goes on and says down the page, sorry, that was a little white lie, here is the true definition. (1) What happened in the 13th, 14th, 15th century? Did they progress to communism? (2) So the late Roman Empire and the Ottoman Empire and, notoriously, Japan, were not feudal? What were they?
          $endgroup$
          – AlexP
          38 mins ago







        • 1




          $begingroup$
          @Noah: You obviously have a very unusual definition of the word "feudalism". You really should edit the question and explain what you mean, because, for example, England to this day has "Kings, Lords and farmers" (we don't call them "peasants"). And yet England has not had a feudal society since half a millennium ago.
          $endgroup$
          – AlexP
          34 mins ago










        • $begingroup$
          This answer makes a good point. Too often people think "feudalism" is defined by the window dressing: a peerage, chivalry, chartered land ownership, serfs, and the occasional crusade. It's much more legal, economic, and political than that. And because of that, once you introduce democracy (or any other form of government) you no longer have feudalism.
          $endgroup$
          – JBH
          12 mins ago















        5












        $begingroup$

        Define feudalism



        When you say "feudal," what do you actually mean?



        Feudalism is defined by Brittanica as




        the social, economic, and political conditions in western Europe
        during the early Middle Ages, the long stretch of time between the 5th
        and 12th centuries.




        There were basically no democratic systems that existed during that time period, and limited republican systems, so by a strict definition of feudalism, the answer is a clear "No". Since there were no democratic polities that existed in Western Europe in the 5th to 12th centuries, democratic-feudalism is an oxymoron.



        Do you want "feudalism" or a class stratified society with voting?



        If you want the latter, then there are plenty of examples to go around.



        • In the strict medieval period of Western Europe, though mostly later than the 12th century, the Venetian Republic operated with limited male suffrage, as did several other city-states of Italy, such as Florence.

        • A less republican Late Medieval variant was the Golden Liberty of Poland, where only the nobles got to vote. This process proceeded somewhat slowly, but a landmark was the 1505 Nihil Novi an act forbidding the King from passing laws without the consent of the Sejm.

        • The paragon of a democratic yet class-based society would be England. Democracy developed slowly from the Magna Carta. By the time of the English Civil War (1640s) and Glorious Revolution (1688), the authority of Parliament, even over the King, was well established. The English Bill of Rights of 1689 established free elections to the House of Commons. The electorate was reasonably open for most of the later Middle Ages. But, an 1432 law established eligibility as landowners who held more property worth 40 shillings of rent. While this did not de jure restrict women from voting, in practice custom forbade it.

        But, note, universal male suffrage did not appear until the French revolution in 1792. The first country with permanent universal male suffrage was Greece in 1844; universal suffrage was first in New Zealand in 1893 (though some territories and states, like Wyoming, had it as far back as 1869). Without a revolutionary era as happened at the end of the 18th century on actual Earth, it is unlikely that suffrage would be universal, or ever extended to all men without property.






        share|improve this answer











        $endgroup$












        • $begingroup$
          Is it possible where Lords and Kings can be elected into a position by his subjects or own class? I say feudalism where we have Kings, Lords and the lower class aka peasants. But it's more of a modern take with democratic elections and representation of the lower class. Doesn't mean they have power over the government but they do have leverage over the officials. If the peasants do not like then, they might as well expect a revolution.
          $endgroup$
          – Noah
          3 hours ago










        • $begingroup$
          I think you're in the right ballpark with Venice. The Italian city-states played around with a Republican form of governments all over the place. Genoa in particular had elections in the 11th century.
          $endgroup$
          – Michael W.
          1 hour ago






        • 1




          $begingroup$
          The definition quoted at the beginning of the answer is worthless; yes, most western European societies during the Middle Ages were feudal, but equating feudalism with what western Europeans (all of them? really?) did between the 5th and 12th century is strange. I would hope that Britannica goes on and says down the page, sorry, that was a little white lie, here is the true definition. (1) What happened in the 13th, 14th, 15th century? Did they progress to communism? (2) So the late Roman Empire and the Ottoman Empire and, notoriously, Japan, were not feudal? What were they?
          $endgroup$
          – AlexP
          38 mins ago







        • 1




          $begingroup$
          @Noah: You obviously have a very unusual definition of the word "feudalism". You really should edit the question and explain what you mean, because, for example, England to this day has "Kings, Lords and farmers" (we don't call them "peasants"). And yet England has not had a feudal society since half a millennium ago.
          $endgroup$
          – AlexP
          34 mins ago










        • $begingroup$
          This answer makes a good point. Too often people think "feudalism" is defined by the window dressing: a peerage, chivalry, chartered land ownership, serfs, and the occasional crusade. It's much more legal, economic, and political than that. And because of that, once you introduce democracy (or any other form of government) you no longer have feudalism.
          $endgroup$
          – JBH
          12 mins ago













        5












        5








        5





        $begingroup$

        Define feudalism



        When you say "feudal," what do you actually mean?



        Feudalism is defined by Brittanica as




        the social, economic, and political conditions in western Europe
        during the early Middle Ages, the long stretch of time between the 5th
        and 12th centuries.




        There were basically no democratic systems that existed during that time period, and limited republican systems, so by a strict definition of feudalism, the answer is a clear "No". Since there were no democratic polities that existed in Western Europe in the 5th to 12th centuries, democratic-feudalism is an oxymoron.



        Do you want "feudalism" or a class stratified society with voting?



        If you want the latter, then there are plenty of examples to go around.



        • In the strict medieval period of Western Europe, though mostly later than the 12th century, the Venetian Republic operated with limited male suffrage, as did several other city-states of Italy, such as Florence.

        • A less republican Late Medieval variant was the Golden Liberty of Poland, where only the nobles got to vote. This process proceeded somewhat slowly, but a landmark was the 1505 Nihil Novi an act forbidding the King from passing laws without the consent of the Sejm.

        • The paragon of a democratic yet class-based society would be England. Democracy developed slowly from the Magna Carta. By the time of the English Civil War (1640s) and Glorious Revolution (1688), the authority of Parliament, even over the King, was well established. The English Bill of Rights of 1689 established free elections to the House of Commons. The electorate was reasonably open for most of the later Middle Ages. But, an 1432 law established eligibility as landowners who held more property worth 40 shillings of rent. While this did not de jure restrict women from voting, in practice custom forbade it.

        But, note, universal male suffrage did not appear until the French revolution in 1792. The first country with permanent universal male suffrage was Greece in 1844; universal suffrage was first in New Zealand in 1893 (though some territories and states, like Wyoming, had it as far back as 1869). Without a revolutionary era as happened at the end of the 18th century on actual Earth, it is unlikely that suffrage would be universal, or ever extended to all men without property.






        share|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        Define feudalism



        When you say "feudal," what do you actually mean?



        Feudalism is defined by Brittanica as




        the social, economic, and political conditions in western Europe
        during the early Middle Ages, the long stretch of time between the 5th
        and 12th centuries.




        There were basically no democratic systems that existed during that time period, and limited republican systems, so by a strict definition of feudalism, the answer is a clear "No". Since there were no democratic polities that existed in Western Europe in the 5th to 12th centuries, democratic-feudalism is an oxymoron.



        Do you want "feudalism" or a class stratified society with voting?



        If you want the latter, then there are plenty of examples to go around.



        • In the strict medieval period of Western Europe, though mostly later than the 12th century, the Venetian Republic operated with limited male suffrage, as did several other city-states of Italy, such as Florence.

        • A less republican Late Medieval variant was the Golden Liberty of Poland, where only the nobles got to vote. This process proceeded somewhat slowly, but a landmark was the 1505 Nihil Novi an act forbidding the King from passing laws without the consent of the Sejm.

        • The paragon of a democratic yet class-based society would be England. Democracy developed slowly from the Magna Carta. By the time of the English Civil War (1640s) and Glorious Revolution (1688), the authority of Parliament, even over the King, was well established. The English Bill of Rights of 1689 established free elections to the House of Commons. The electorate was reasonably open for most of the later Middle Ages. But, an 1432 law established eligibility as landowners who held more property worth 40 shillings of rent. While this did not de jure restrict women from voting, in practice custom forbade it.

        But, note, universal male suffrage did not appear until the French revolution in 1792. The first country with permanent universal male suffrage was Greece in 1844; universal suffrage was first in New Zealand in 1893 (though some territories and states, like Wyoming, had it as far back as 1869). Without a revolutionary era as happened at the end of the 18th century on actual Earth, it is unlikely that suffrage would be universal, or ever extended to all men without property.







        share|improve this answer














        share|improve this answer



        share|improve this answer








        edited 3 hours ago

























        answered 3 hours ago









        kingledionkingledion

        74.5k26246436




        74.5k26246436











        • $begingroup$
          Is it possible where Lords and Kings can be elected into a position by his subjects or own class? I say feudalism where we have Kings, Lords and the lower class aka peasants. But it's more of a modern take with democratic elections and representation of the lower class. Doesn't mean they have power over the government but they do have leverage over the officials. If the peasants do not like then, they might as well expect a revolution.
          $endgroup$
          – Noah
          3 hours ago










        • $begingroup$
          I think you're in the right ballpark with Venice. The Italian city-states played around with a Republican form of governments all over the place. Genoa in particular had elections in the 11th century.
          $endgroup$
          – Michael W.
          1 hour ago






        • 1




          $begingroup$
          The definition quoted at the beginning of the answer is worthless; yes, most western European societies during the Middle Ages were feudal, but equating feudalism with what western Europeans (all of them? really?) did between the 5th and 12th century is strange. I would hope that Britannica goes on and says down the page, sorry, that was a little white lie, here is the true definition. (1) What happened in the 13th, 14th, 15th century? Did they progress to communism? (2) So the late Roman Empire and the Ottoman Empire and, notoriously, Japan, were not feudal? What were they?
          $endgroup$
          – AlexP
          38 mins ago







        • 1




          $begingroup$
          @Noah: You obviously have a very unusual definition of the word "feudalism". You really should edit the question and explain what you mean, because, for example, England to this day has "Kings, Lords and farmers" (we don't call them "peasants"). And yet England has not had a feudal society since half a millennium ago.
          $endgroup$
          – AlexP
          34 mins ago










        • $begingroup$
          This answer makes a good point. Too often people think "feudalism" is defined by the window dressing: a peerage, chivalry, chartered land ownership, serfs, and the occasional crusade. It's much more legal, economic, and political than that. And because of that, once you introduce democracy (or any other form of government) you no longer have feudalism.
          $endgroup$
          – JBH
          12 mins ago
















        • $begingroup$
          Is it possible where Lords and Kings can be elected into a position by his subjects or own class? I say feudalism where we have Kings, Lords and the lower class aka peasants. But it's more of a modern take with democratic elections and representation of the lower class. Doesn't mean they have power over the government but they do have leverage over the officials. If the peasants do not like then, they might as well expect a revolution.
          $endgroup$
          – Noah
          3 hours ago










        • $begingroup$
          I think you're in the right ballpark with Venice. The Italian city-states played around with a Republican form of governments all over the place. Genoa in particular had elections in the 11th century.
          $endgroup$
          – Michael W.
          1 hour ago






        • 1




          $begingroup$
          The definition quoted at the beginning of the answer is worthless; yes, most western European societies during the Middle Ages were feudal, but equating feudalism with what western Europeans (all of them? really?) did between the 5th and 12th century is strange. I would hope that Britannica goes on and says down the page, sorry, that was a little white lie, here is the true definition. (1) What happened in the 13th, 14th, 15th century? Did they progress to communism? (2) So the late Roman Empire and the Ottoman Empire and, notoriously, Japan, were not feudal? What were they?
          $endgroup$
          – AlexP
          38 mins ago







        • 1




          $begingroup$
          @Noah: You obviously have a very unusual definition of the word "feudalism". You really should edit the question and explain what you mean, because, for example, England to this day has "Kings, Lords and farmers" (we don't call them "peasants"). And yet England has not had a feudal society since half a millennium ago.
          $endgroup$
          – AlexP
          34 mins ago










        • $begingroup$
          This answer makes a good point. Too often people think "feudalism" is defined by the window dressing: a peerage, chivalry, chartered land ownership, serfs, and the occasional crusade. It's much more legal, economic, and political than that. And because of that, once you introduce democracy (or any other form of government) you no longer have feudalism.
          $endgroup$
          – JBH
          12 mins ago















        $begingroup$
        Is it possible where Lords and Kings can be elected into a position by his subjects or own class? I say feudalism where we have Kings, Lords and the lower class aka peasants. But it's more of a modern take with democratic elections and representation of the lower class. Doesn't mean they have power over the government but they do have leverage over the officials. If the peasants do not like then, they might as well expect a revolution.
        $endgroup$
        – Noah
        3 hours ago




        $begingroup$
        Is it possible where Lords and Kings can be elected into a position by his subjects or own class? I say feudalism where we have Kings, Lords and the lower class aka peasants. But it's more of a modern take with democratic elections and representation of the lower class. Doesn't mean they have power over the government but they do have leverage over the officials. If the peasants do not like then, they might as well expect a revolution.
        $endgroup$
        – Noah
        3 hours ago












        $begingroup$
        I think you're in the right ballpark with Venice. The Italian city-states played around with a Republican form of governments all over the place. Genoa in particular had elections in the 11th century.
        $endgroup$
        – Michael W.
        1 hour ago




        $begingroup$
        I think you're in the right ballpark with Venice. The Italian city-states played around with a Republican form of governments all over the place. Genoa in particular had elections in the 11th century.
        $endgroup$
        – Michael W.
        1 hour ago




        1




        1




        $begingroup$
        The definition quoted at the beginning of the answer is worthless; yes, most western European societies during the Middle Ages were feudal, but equating feudalism with what western Europeans (all of them? really?) did between the 5th and 12th century is strange. I would hope that Britannica goes on and says down the page, sorry, that was a little white lie, here is the true definition. (1) What happened in the 13th, 14th, 15th century? Did they progress to communism? (2) So the late Roman Empire and the Ottoman Empire and, notoriously, Japan, were not feudal? What were they?
        $endgroup$
        – AlexP
        38 mins ago





        $begingroup$
        The definition quoted at the beginning of the answer is worthless; yes, most western European societies during the Middle Ages were feudal, but equating feudalism with what western Europeans (all of them? really?) did between the 5th and 12th century is strange. I would hope that Britannica goes on and says down the page, sorry, that was a little white lie, here is the true definition. (1) What happened in the 13th, 14th, 15th century? Did they progress to communism? (2) So the late Roman Empire and the Ottoman Empire and, notoriously, Japan, were not feudal? What were they?
        $endgroup$
        – AlexP
        38 mins ago





        1




        1




        $begingroup$
        @Noah: You obviously have a very unusual definition of the word "feudalism". You really should edit the question and explain what you mean, because, for example, England to this day has "Kings, Lords and farmers" (we don't call them "peasants"). And yet England has not had a feudal society since half a millennium ago.
        $endgroup$
        – AlexP
        34 mins ago




        $begingroup$
        @Noah: You obviously have a very unusual definition of the word "feudalism". You really should edit the question and explain what you mean, because, for example, England to this day has "Kings, Lords and farmers" (we don't call them "peasants"). And yet England has not had a feudal society since half a millennium ago.
        $endgroup$
        – AlexP
        34 mins ago












        $begingroup$
        This answer makes a good point. Too often people think "feudalism" is defined by the window dressing: a peerage, chivalry, chartered land ownership, serfs, and the occasional crusade. It's much more legal, economic, and political than that. And because of that, once you introduce democracy (or any other form of government) you no longer have feudalism.
        $endgroup$
        – JBH
        12 mins ago




        $begingroup$
        This answer makes a good point. Too often people think "feudalism" is defined by the window dressing: a peerage, chivalry, chartered land ownership, serfs, and the occasional crusade. It's much more legal, economic, and political than that. And because of that, once you introduce democracy (or any other form of government) you no longer have feudalism.
        $endgroup$
        – JBH
        12 mins ago











        4












        $begingroup$

        One important aspect of Feudalism, and why it came about in the first place, that is often overlooked from a modern viewpoint is that Feudalism is a two way social structure:



        Those who are at the top and supported by those below them aren't originally up there looking out for purely their own self interest, but rather their role in society was to be that of protector and manager.



        Lower classes swear loyalty to an upper class not because they were lowly dirt dwelling scum who got nothing out of it, but rather they swear loyalty in exchange for protection, peace, and organization.



        "I work this land, give you part of my yearly labour, and otherwise support you, and you and all your buddies promise to help me live in peace and good health, and keep those far off foreigners from killing all the men and running off with the gold and women..." ["And maybe I'll help you go to those foreign lands to take their stuff..."]



        (Consider this social construct to the modern "I promise to work for your company, and you promise to lay me off whenever you think that might help you buy a bigger house/yacht/jet/whatever." - Humanity is weird.)



        So you have multiple ways to structure things:



        • Do the lords and protectors get elected?

        • Are there multiple layers of government, based on social class, with elected elements? [In human history we have any number of examples advisers elected to government representing various class levels.]

        • A mix and match of elected/hereditary/religious titles?

        At its heart, a democratic-feudal structure is no less stable than a democratic "Vote for me so I can plunder the nation for my four year term for my own/my friend's/family's benefit" politics we see today.






        share|improve this answer









        $endgroup$












        • $begingroup$
          Yes, I wanted the Lords and Kings to be elected by either the peasants or the class they are in. Preferably the former. The government can be described as military orders loyal to the government (army, navy, air force), a Congress/parlimant, the Hiearchy (the ruling class), then the King (elected head if state). Essentially, I am trying to create a near medieval society with a modern touch.
          $endgroup$
          – Noah
          3 hours ago










        • $begingroup$
          I'd expect a "democratic feudalism" to be similar to an elective monarchy, except that the entire hierarchy is elected, rather than just the guy at the top.
          $endgroup$
          – Mark
          1 hour ago















        4












        $begingroup$

        One important aspect of Feudalism, and why it came about in the first place, that is often overlooked from a modern viewpoint is that Feudalism is a two way social structure:



        Those who are at the top and supported by those below them aren't originally up there looking out for purely their own self interest, but rather their role in society was to be that of protector and manager.



        Lower classes swear loyalty to an upper class not because they were lowly dirt dwelling scum who got nothing out of it, but rather they swear loyalty in exchange for protection, peace, and organization.



        "I work this land, give you part of my yearly labour, and otherwise support you, and you and all your buddies promise to help me live in peace and good health, and keep those far off foreigners from killing all the men and running off with the gold and women..." ["And maybe I'll help you go to those foreign lands to take their stuff..."]



        (Consider this social construct to the modern "I promise to work for your company, and you promise to lay me off whenever you think that might help you buy a bigger house/yacht/jet/whatever." - Humanity is weird.)



        So you have multiple ways to structure things:



        • Do the lords and protectors get elected?

        • Are there multiple layers of government, based on social class, with elected elements? [In human history we have any number of examples advisers elected to government representing various class levels.]

        • A mix and match of elected/hereditary/religious titles?

        At its heart, a democratic-feudal structure is no less stable than a democratic "Vote for me so I can plunder the nation for my four year term for my own/my friend's/family's benefit" politics we see today.






        share|improve this answer









        $endgroup$












        • $begingroup$
          Yes, I wanted the Lords and Kings to be elected by either the peasants or the class they are in. Preferably the former. The government can be described as military orders loyal to the government (army, navy, air force), a Congress/parlimant, the Hiearchy (the ruling class), then the King (elected head if state). Essentially, I am trying to create a near medieval society with a modern touch.
          $endgroup$
          – Noah
          3 hours ago










        • $begingroup$
          I'd expect a "democratic feudalism" to be similar to an elective monarchy, except that the entire hierarchy is elected, rather than just the guy at the top.
          $endgroup$
          – Mark
          1 hour ago













        4












        4








        4





        $begingroup$

        One important aspect of Feudalism, and why it came about in the first place, that is often overlooked from a modern viewpoint is that Feudalism is a two way social structure:



        Those who are at the top and supported by those below them aren't originally up there looking out for purely their own self interest, but rather their role in society was to be that of protector and manager.



        Lower classes swear loyalty to an upper class not because they were lowly dirt dwelling scum who got nothing out of it, but rather they swear loyalty in exchange for protection, peace, and organization.



        "I work this land, give you part of my yearly labour, and otherwise support you, and you and all your buddies promise to help me live in peace and good health, and keep those far off foreigners from killing all the men and running off with the gold and women..." ["And maybe I'll help you go to those foreign lands to take their stuff..."]



        (Consider this social construct to the modern "I promise to work for your company, and you promise to lay me off whenever you think that might help you buy a bigger house/yacht/jet/whatever." - Humanity is weird.)



        So you have multiple ways to structure things:



        • Do the lords and protectors get elected?

        • Are there multiple layers of government, based on social class, with elected elements? [In human history we have any number of examples advisers elected to government representing various class levels.]

        • A mix and match of elected/hereditary/religious titles?

        At its heart, a democratic-feudal structure is no less stable than a democratic "Vote for me so I can plunder the nation for my four year term for my own/my friend's/family's benefit" politics we see today.






        share|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        One important aspect of Feudalism, and why it came about in the first place, that is often overlooked from a modern viewpoint is that Feudalism is a two way social structure:



        Those who are at the top and supported by those below them aren't originally up there looking out for purely their own self interest, but rather their role in society was to be that of protector and manager.



        Lower classes swear loyalty to an upper class not because they were lowly dirt dwelling scum who got nothing out of it, but rather they swear loyalty in exchange for protection, peace, and organization.



        "I work this land, give you part of my yearly labour, and otherwise support you, and you and all your buddies promise to help me live in peace and good health, and keep those far off foreigners from killing all the men and running off with the gold and women..." ["And maybe I'll help you go to those foreign lands to take their stuff..."]



        (Consider this social construct to the modern "I promise to work for your company, and you promise to lay me off whenever you think that might help you buy a bigger house/yacht/jet/whatever." - Humanity is weird.)



        So you have multiple ways to structure things:



        • Do the lords and protectors get elected?

        • Are there multiple layers of government, based on social class, with elected elements? [In human history we have any number of examples advisers elected to government representing various class levels.]

        • A mix and match of elected/hereditary/religious titles?

        At its heart, a democratic-feudal structure is no less stable than a democratic "Vote for me so I can plunder the nation for my four year term for my own/my friend's/family's benefit" politics we see today.







        share|improve this answer












        share|improve this answer



        share|improve this answer










        answered 3 hours ago









        TheLucklessTheLuckless

        65615




        65615











        • $begingroup$
          Yes, I wanted the Lords and Kings to be elected by either the peasants or the class they are in. Preferably the former. The government can be described as military orders loyal to the government (army, navy, air force), a Congress/parlimant, the Hiearchy (the ruling class), then the King (elected head if state). Essentially, I am trying to create a near medieval society with a modern touch.
          $endgroup$
          – Noah
          3 hours ago










        • $begingroup$
          I'd expect a "democratic feudalism" to be similar to an elective monarchy, except that the entire hierarchy is elected, rather than just the guy at the top.
          $endgroup$
          – Mark
          1 hour ago
















        • $begingroup$
          Yes, I wanted the Lords and Kings to be elected by either the peasants or the class they are in. Preferably the former. The government can be described as military orders loyal to the government (army, navy, air force), a Congress/parlimant, the Hiearchy (the ruling class), then the King (elected head if state). Essentially, I am trying to create a near medieval society with a modern touch.
          $endgroup$
          – Noah
          3 hours ago










        • $begingroup$
          I'd expect a "democratic feudalism" to be similar to an elective monarchy, except that the entire hierarchy is elected, rather than just the guy at the top.
          $endgroup$
          – Mark
          1 hour ago















        $begingroup$
        Yes, I wanted the Lords and Kings to be elected by either the peasants or the class they are in. Preferably the former. The government can be described as military orders loyal to the government (army, navy, air force), a Congress/parlimant, the Hiearchy (the ruling class), then the King (elected head if state). Essentially, I am trying to create a near medieval society with a modern touch.
        $endgroup$
        – Noah
        3 hours ago




        $begingroup$
        Yes, I wanted the Lords and Kings to be elected by either the peasants or the class they are in. Preferably the former. The government can be described as military orders loyal to the government (army, navy, air force), a Congress/parlimant, the Hiearchy (the ruling class), then the King (elected head if state). Essentially, I am trying to create a near medieval society with a modern touch.
        $endgroup$
        – Noah
        3 hours ago












        $begingroup$
        I'd expect a "democratic feudalism" to be similar to an elective monarchy, except that the entire hierarchy is elected, rather than just the guy at the top.
        $endgroup$
        – Mark
        1 hour ago




        $begingroup$
        I'd expect a "democratic feudalism" to be similar to an elective monarchy, except that the entire hierarchy is elected, rather than just the guy at the top.
        $endgroup$
        – Mark
        1 hour ago











        4












        $begingroup$

        You can't have a feudal society and capitalism. Capitalism creates a plutocratic class that will fight against the feudal elite. If they fail the capitalism is crushed and feudalism remains. If they win, the feudal system is gone.



        This happens because the social link in a capitalist society is money while in a feudal society are the oaths of fealty between the people. These two links can't coexist for long.



        About democratic feudalism (but without capitalism): it can exist - the warlords may form noble republics where they elect their overlord and can veto decisions, something like the government of old Poland.






        share|improve this answer









        $endgroup$








        • 1




          $begingroup$
          +1. I agree. The weak link is combining capitalism with feudalism. Apart from what you said capitalism requires lots social and economic infrastructure to work, while feudalism is what states that lack such infrastructure use. Any overlap would be temporary and full of conflict. As for democracy, the warlords themselves might also be elected. Having soldiers, warriors or pirates elect their leaders is fairly common actually. But it would require that the fiefs are given to the military unit not individual people, so it would differ from feudalism as we know.
          $endgroup$
          – Ville Niemi
          1 hour ago















        4












        $begingroup$

        You can't have a feudal society and capitalism. Capitalism creates a plutocratic class that will fight against the feudal elite. If they fail the capitalism is crushed and feudalism remains. If they win, the feudal system is gone.



        This happens because the social link in a capitalist society is money while in a feudal society are the oaths of fealty between the people. These two links can't coexist for long.



        About democratic feudalism (but without capitalism): it can exist - the warlords may form noble republics where they elect their overlord and can veto decisions, something like the government of old Poland.






        share|improve this answer









        $endgroup$








        • 1




          $begingroup$
          +1. I agree. The weak link is combining capitalism with feudalism. Apart from what you said capitalism requires lots social and economic infrastructure to work, while feudalism is what states that lack such infrastructure use. Any overlap would be temporary and full of conflict. As for democracy, the warlords themselves might also be elected. Having soldiers, warriors or pirates elect their leaders is fairly common actually. But it would require that the fiefs are given to the military unit not individual people, so it would differ from feudalism as we know.
          $endgroup$
          – Ville Niemi
          1 hour ago













        4












        4








        4





        $begingroup$

        You can't have a feudal society and capitalism. Capitalism creates a plutocratic class that will fight against the feudal elite. If they fail the capitalism is crushed and feudalism remains. If they win, the feudal system is gone.



        This happens because the social link in a capitalist society is money while in a feudal society are the oaths of fealty between the people. These two links can't coexist for long.



        About democratic feudalism (but without capitalism): it can exist - the warlords may form noble republics where they elect their overlord and can veto decisions, something like the government of old Poland.






        share|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        You can't have a feudal society and capitalism. Capitalism creates a plutocratic class that will fight against the feudal elite. If they fail the capitalism is crushed and feudalism remains. If they win, the feudal system is gone.



        This happens because the social link in a capitalist society is money while in a feudal society are the oaths of fealty between the people. These two links can't coexist for long.



        About democratic feudalism (but without capitalism): it can exist - the warlords may form noble republics where they elect their overlord and can veto decisions, something like the government of old Poland.







        share|improve this answer












        share|improve this answer



        share|improve this answer










        answered 2 hours ago









        GeronimoGeronimo

        1,143411




        1,143411







        • 1




          $begingroup$
          +1. I agree. The weak link is combining capitalism with feudalism. Apart from what you said capitalism requires lots social and economic infrastructure to work, while feudalism is what states that lack such infrastructure use. Any overlap would be temporary and full of conflict. As for democracy, the warlords themselves might also be elected. Having soldiers, warriors or pirates elect their leaders is fairly common actually. But it would require that the fiefs are given to the military unit not individual people, so it would differ from feudalism as we know.
          $endgroup$
          – Ville Niemi
          1 hour ago












        • 1




          $begingroup$
          +1. I agree. The weak link is combining capitalism with feudalism. Apart from what you said capitalism requires lots social and economic infrastructure to work, while feudalism is what states that lack such infrastructure use. Any overlap would be temporary and full of conflict. As for democracy, the warlords themselves might also be elected. Having soldiers, warriors or pirates elect their leaders is fairly common actually. But it would require that the fiefs are given to the military unit not individual people, so it would differ from feudalism as we know.
          $endgroup$
          – Ville Niemi
          1 hour ago







        1




        1




        $begingroup$
        +1. I agree. The weak link is combining capitalism with feudalism. Apart from what you said capitalism requires lots social and economic infrastructure to work, while feudalism is what states that lack such infrastructure use. Any overlap would be temporary and full of conflict. As for democracy, the warlords themselves might also be elected. Having soldiers, warriors or pirates elect their leaders is fairly common actually. But it would require that the fiefs are given to the military unit not individual people, so it would differ from feudalism as we know.
        $endgroup$
        – Ville Niemi
        1 hour ago




        $begingroup$
        +1. I agree. The weak link is combining capitalism with feudalism. Apart from what you said capitalism requires lots social and economic infrastructure to work, while feudalism is what states that lack such infrastructure use. Any overlap would be temporary and full of conflict. As for democracy, the warlords themselves might also be elected. Having soldiers, warriors or pirates elect their leaders is fairly common actually. But it would require that the fiefs are given to the military unit not individual people, so it would differ from feudalism as we know.
        $endgroup$
        – Ville Niemi
        1 hour ago











        2












        $begingroup$

        A feudal system can have an "electoral system": for instance, usually the Emperor of the Holy Roman Empire was elected by a council of the most important feudal lord



        Usually, a feudal system (but it happens for every system featuring a ruling oligarchy by birth) goes into crisis when a bourgeoisie (commoners who are able to accumulate a considerable wealth) rises. These new riches basically want to have the right to join the administration of the power. It happened for instance in the ancient Rome, in Italy and North Europe during the rise of the communes, in the 18th century France



        In the Middle Age, usually the people in the countryside were under the rule of the feudal lords, while the people living in the cities were free from feudal rules, and could become "owners of themselves" and start a work as artisans or merchants, creating an embryo of bourgeoisie and this way triggering the rise of communes in late Middle Age.



        So, in my idea a possibility would be a partial feudal-democratic system: the society is divided into free cities (under democratic rule) and rural countries (under feudal rule). Feudal lords should of course follow the laws and treat well their subjects, in order not to lose their peasants. At the same time, people who don't like democracy or feel that they would live better under the protection of a ruler could leave the cities and become subjects of the feudal lords.

        Every time the emperor dies or resigns, the feudal lords and the representatives of the cities would elect a new emperor.



        The problem is that at some point, the industrial revolution will happen (it seems unavoidable, in order to reach a present-day-like development), which would create an unbalance in the equilibrium between country and city (basically, cities will start to exponentially accumulate wealth and population).

        To keep the feudal system, we can speculate that a kind of subdivision would spontaneously be established (feudal lords could found their own factories, more efficient thanks to the feudal labor, but less innovative with respect to urban factories), that could live up to present day.






        share|improve this answer









        $endgroup$

















          2












          $begingroup$

          A feudal system can have an "electoral system": for instance, usually the Emperor of the Holy Roman Empire was elected by a council of the most important feudal lord



          Usually, a feudal system (but it happens for every system featuring a ruling oligarchy by birth) goes into crisis when a bourgeoisie (commoners who are able to accumulate a considerable wealth) rises. These new riches basically want to have the right to join the administration of the power. It happened for instance in the ancient Rome, in Italy and North Europe during the rise of the communes, in the 18th century France



          In the Middle Age, usually the people in the countryside were under the rule of the feudal lords, while the people living in the cities were free from feudal rules, and could become "owners of themselves" and start a work as artisans or merchants, creating an embryo of bourgeoisie and this way triggering the rise of communes in late Middle Age.



          So, in my idea a possibility would be a partial feudal-democratic system: the society is divided into free cities (under democratic rule) and rural countries (under feudal rule). Feudal lords should of course follow the laws and treat well their subjects, in order not to lose their peasants. At the same time, people who don't like democracy or feel that they would live better under the protection of a ruler could leave the cities and become subjects of the feudal lords.

          Every time the emperor dies or resigns, the feudal lords and the representatives of the cities would elect a new emperor.



          The problem is that at some point, the industrial revolution will happen (it seems unavoidable, in order to reach a present-day-like development), which would create an unbalance in the equilibrium between country and city (basically, cities will start to exponentially accumulate wealth and population).

          To keep the feudal system, we can speculate that a kind of subdivision would spontaneously be established (feudal lords could found their own factories, more efficient thanks to the feudal labor, but less innovative with respect to urban factories), that could live up to present day.






          share|improve this answer









          $endgroup$















            2












            2








            2





            $begingroup$

            A feudal system can have an "electoral system": for instance, usually the Emperor of the Holy Roman Empire was elected by a council of the most important feudal lord



            Usually, a feudal system (but it happens for every system featuring a ruling oligarchy by birth) goes into crisis when a bourgeoisie (commoners who are able to accumulate a considerable wealth) rises. These new riches basically want to have the right to join the administration of the power. It happened for instance in the ancient Rome, in Italy and North Europe during the rise of the communes, in the 18th century France



            In the Middle Age, usually the people in the countryside were under the rule of the feudal lords, while the people living in the cities were free from feudal rules, and could become "owners of themselves" and start a work as artisans or merchants, creating an embryo of bourgeoisie and this way triggering the rise of communes in late Middle Age.



            So, in my idea a possibility would be a partial feudal-democratic system: the society is divided into free cities (under democratic rule) and rural countries (under feudal rule). Feudal lords should of course follow the laws and treat well their subjects, in order not to lose their peasants. At the same time, people who don't like democracy or feel that they would live better under the protection of a ruler could leave the cities and become subjects of the feudal lords.

            Every time the emperor dies or resigns, the feudal lords and the representatives of the cities would elect a new emperor.



            The problem is that at some point, the industrial revolution will happen (it seems unavoidable, in order to reach a present-day-like development), which would create an unbalance in the equilibrium between country and city (basically, cities will start to exponentially accumulate wealth and population).

            To keep the feudal system, we can speculate that a kind of subdivision would spontaneously be established (feudal lords could found their own factories, more efficient thanks to the feudal labor, but less innovative with respect to urban factories), that could live up to present day.






            share|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            A feudal system can have an "electoral system": for instance, usually the Emperor of the Holy Roman Empire was elected by a council of the most important feudal lord



            Usually, a feudal system (but it happens for every system featuring a ruling oligarchy by birth) goes into crisis when a bourgeoisie (commoners who are able to accumulate a considerable wealth) rises. These new riches basically want to have the right to join the administration of the power. It happened for instance in the ancient Rome, in Italy and North Europe during the rise of the communes, in the 18th century France



            In the Middle Age, usually the people in the countryside were under the rule of the feudal lords, while the people living in the cities were free from feudal rules, and could become "owners of themselves" and start a work as artisans or merchants, creating an embryo of bourgeoisie and this way triggering the rise of communes in late Middle Age.



            So, in my idea a possibility would be a partial feudal-democratic system: the society is divided into free cities (under democratic rule) and rural countries (under feudal rule). Feudal lords should of course follow the laws and treat well their subjects, in order not to lose their peasants. At the same time, people who don't like democracy or feel that they would live better under the protection of a ruler could leave the cities and become subjects of the feudal lords.

            Every time the emperor dies or resigns, the feudal lords and the representatives of the cities would elect a new emperor.



            The problem is that at some point, the industrial revolution will happen (it seems unavoidable, in order to reach a present-day-like development), which would create an unbalance in the equilibrium between country and city (basically, cities will start to exponentially accumulate wealth and population).

            To keep the feudal system, we can speculate that a kind of subdivision would spontaneously be established (feudal lords could found their own factories, more efficient thanks to the feudal labor, but less innovative with respect to urban factories), that could live up to present day.







            share|improve this answer












            share|improve this answer



            share|improve this answer










            answered 2 hours ago









            McTroopersMcTroopers

            1,1606




            1,1606





















                1












                $begingroup$

                I could see all three of these factors dovetailing quite nicely (if you can use dovetail for 3 things...).



                Feudalism

                This gives us classes: lords, vassals, peasants, royalty, etc. At each level you receive different rights, privileges and responsibilities. Perhaps only lords can vote or maybe all classes can vote but only lords and royalty can own land. These distinctions are up to you and don't greatly impact the other two aspects.



                Democracy

                You don't vote for king! And maybe even prince, financial adviser or some number of lords. Again, there is a large amount of sway you can exert here depending on just how democratic you want your world to be.



                Capitalism

                Instead of marriage, knighthood or other methods of moving from class to class, you move up in rank with money. This isn't to say that you can become king this way as that still requires a vote (but money does tend to help with that). As you accumulate money you gain rights thanks to moving up in class. Poor peasant Bill Gates makes himself a lord of a minor or major kingdom (depending on where you draw the voting line).



                All together you have what might look shockingly like our modern society except that we have King Trump and he doesn't just pretend to wield absolute power, he does and he's king for life. Instead of money allowing you to influence political decisions, it allows you to make them. Like all political systems, the flaws will become apparent the longer it's around and this system would by no means be perfect.






                share|improve this answer









                $endgroup$

















                  1












                  $begingroup$

                  I could see all three of these factors dovetailing quite nicely (if you can use dovetail for 3 things...).



                  Feudalism

                  This gives us classes: lords, vassals, peasants, royalty, etc. At each level you receive different rights, privileges and responsibilities. Perhaps only lords can vote or maybe all classes can vote but only lords and royalty can own land. These distinctions are up to you and don't greatly impact the other two aspects.



                  Democracy

                  You don't vote for king! And maybe even prince, financial adviser or some number of lords. Again, there is a large amount of sway you can exert here depending on just how democratic you want your world to be.



                  Capitalism

                  Instead of marriage, knighthood or other methods of moving from class to class, you move up in rank with money. This isn't to say that you can become king this way as that still requires a vote (but money does tend to help with that). As you accumulate money you gain rights thanks to moving up in class. Poor peasant Bill Gates makes himself a lord of a minor or major kingdom (depending on where you draw the voting line).



                  All together you have what might look shockingly like our modern society except that we have King Trump and he doesn't just pretend to wield absolute power, he does and he's king for life. Instead of money allowing you to influence political decisions, it allows you to make them. Like all political systems, the flaws will become apparent the longer it's around and this system would by no means be perfect.






                  share|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$















                    1












                    1








                    1





                    $begingroup$

                    I could see all three of these factors dovetailing quite nicely (if you can use dovetail for 3 things...).



                    Feudalism

                    This gives us classes: lords, vassals, peasants, royalty, etc. At each level you receive different rights, privileges and responsibilities. Perhaps only lords can vote or maybe all classes can vote but only lords and royalty can own land. These distinctions are up to you and don't greatly impact the other two aspects.



                    Democracy

                    You don't vote for king! And maybe even prince, financial adviser or some number of lords. Again, there is a large amount of sway you can exert here depending on just how democratic you want your world to be.



                    Capitalism

                    Instead of marriage, knighthood or other methods of moving from class to class, you move up in rank with money. This isn't to say that you can become king this way as that still requires a vote (but money does tend to help with that). As you accumulate money you gain rights thanks to moving up in class. Poor peasant Bill Gates makes himself a lord of a minor or major kingdom (depending on where you draw the voting line).



                    All together you have what might look shockingly like our modern society except that we have King Trump and he doesn't just pretend to wield absolute power, he does and he's king for life. Instead of money allowing you to influence political decisions, it allows you to make them. Like all political systems, the flaws will become apparent the longer it's around and this system would by no means be perfect.






                    share|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$



                    I could see all three of these factors dovetailing quite nicely (if you can use dovetail for 3 things...).



                    Feudalism

                    This gives us classes: lords, vassals, peasants, royalty, etc. At each level you receive different rights, privileges and responsibilities. Perhaps only lords can vote or maybe all classes can vote but only lords and royalty can own land. These distinctions are up to you and don't greatly impact the other two aspects.



                    Democracy

                    You don't vote for king! And maybe even prince, financial adviser or some number of lords. Again, there is a large amount of sway you can exert here depending on just how democratic you want your world to be.



                    Capitalism

                    Instead of marriage, knighthood or other methods of moving from class to class, you move up in rank with money. This isn't to say that you can become king this way as that still requires a vote (but money does tend to help with that). As you accumulate money you gain rights thanks to moving up in class. Poor peasant Bill Gates makes himself a lord of a minor or major kingdom (depending on where you draw the voting line).



                    All together you have what might look shockingly like our modern society except that we have King Trump and he doesn't just pretend to wield absolute power, he does and he's king for life. Instead of money allowing you to influence political decisions, it allows you to make them. Like all political systems, the flaws will become apparent the longer it's around and this system would by no means be perfect.







                    share|improve this answer












                    share|improve this answer



                    share|improve this answer










                    answered 1 hour ago









                    SpartacusSpartacus

                    211




                    211





















                        0












                        $begingroup$

                        Feudalism has three main parts, lords, lands, and vassals. The lords own the lands and lords owe their loyalty to other lords supplying mutual military and economic support. The peasantry are tied to the land. Nothing says the lords can't be elected by the peasants they rule. Involving complex capitalism would make things a little more complex. A corporation might fit in with the lords, owning land and the workers on it while pledging loyalty to a lord or other corporation.



                        A strict social hierarchy is not necessarily a requirement of feudalism though.






                        share|improve this answer











                        $endgroup$

















                          0












                          $begingroup$

                          Feudalism has three main parts, lords, lands, and vassals. The lords own the lands and lords owe their loyalty to other lords supplying mutual military and economic support. The peasantry are tied to the land. Nothing says the lords can't be elected by the peasants they rule. Involving complex capitalism would make things a little more complex. A corporation might fit in with the lords, owning land and the workers on it while pledging loyalty to a lord or other corporation.



                          A strict social hierarchy is not necessarily a requirement of feudalism though.






                          share|improve this answer











                          $endgroup$















                            0












                            0








                            0





                            $begingroup$

                            Feudalism has three main parts, lords, lands, and vassals. The lords own the lands and lords owe their loyalty to other lords supplying mutual military and economic support. The peasantry are tied to the land. Nothing says the lords can't be elected by the peasants they rule. Involving complex capitalism would make things a little more complex. A corporation might fit in with the lords, owning land and the workers on it while pledging loyalty to a lord or other corporation.



                            A strict social hierarchy is not necessarily a requirement of feudalism though.






                            share|improve this answer











                            $endgroup$



                            Feudalism has three main parts, lords, lands, and vassals. The lords own the lands and lords owe their loyalty to other lords supplying mutual military and economic support. The peasantry are tied to the land. Nothing says the lords can't be elected by the peasants they rule. Involving complex capitalism would make things a little more complex. A corporation might fit in with the lords, owning land and the workers on it while pledging loyalty to a lord or other corporation.



                            A strict social hierarchy is not necessarily a requirement of feudalism though.







                            share|improve this answer














                            share|improve this answer



                            share|improve this answer








                            edited 3 hours ago

























                            answered 3 hours ago









                            GiruŠatukuGiruŠatuku

                            11218




                            11218



























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