Who would be legally responsible for the application of mainstream wrong psychological/psychiatrist therapies? The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are In Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)How do people publicly admit to criminal activity and not typically get arrested?Why does the law give immunity from crime, to children below age 12?If a law is proven to be unconstitutional, can the Legislators who approved it be sued?If proven, would collusion with Russia to interfere with election meet criteria for charge of treason?I'm being hacked, stalked and gossiped about. Do I have a chance at suing for slander, character assasination?When and how, after being arrested, can a person hire their own attorney?Is Patty Mayo's Youtube content legal?Disbarment or lesser discipline, United StatesWhy do prosecutors sometimes chase “weak” cases?What are my legal options for impersonation?

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Who would be legally responsible for the application of mainstream wrong psychological/psychiatrist therapies?



The 2019 Stack Overflow Developer Survey Results Are In
Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)How do people publicly admit to criminal activity and not typically get arrested?Why does the law give immunity from crime, to children below age 12?If a law is proven to be unconstitutional, can the Legislators who approved it be sued?If proven, would collusion with Russia to interfere with election meet criteria for charge of treason?I'm being hacked, stalked and gossiped about. Do I have a chance at suing for slander, character assasination?When and how, after being arrested, can a person hire their own attorney?Is Patty Mayo's Youtube content legal?Disbarment or lesser discipline, United StatesWhy do prosecutors sometimes chase “weak” cases?What are my legal options for impersonation?










0















Several times has happened that the definition of mental disorders/ psychological-psychiatrist therapies/theories have been proven wrong. Yet they have been applied over people causing them problems and harm in their lives. Usually graduated psychologists/ psychiatrists are ignorant which is the supposed proof of these theories. They've been told they have been proven sometimes, sometimes they've been given some details, and they don't know they don't have a real basis behind them until it's massively accepted they are wrong. Personally, I see little to no responsibilities in them. In the other hand, governments and states promote these theories in secondary schools, they teach them and form professionals in national universities, and they hold the power to treat people in trials and to internate someone for being ill under these theories. Some other organizations, which I'm not very aware who they are, but I assume they might be colleges or agrupations of psychiatrists/psychologists regulate their professional's activities, and I assume they might be the ones giving the content to national universities for the formation of professionals under these theories. When one of these theories/therapies are proven wrong and have caused harm over people, who is the legal responsibility?



I assume there aren't many cases like this, but I make the parallelism with biological sciences. If an association or group produces a medicament which is proven harmful for people later, and that association teaches doctors to give this medicament to people, with the approval and fundings/places of national government created universities, it would be pretty much the same. Then, in the case stated in the topic question, who would be legally responsible for the application of these mainstream wrong psychological/psychiatrist therapies?










share|improve this question
























  • It kind of depends on the situation. The question is too broad.

    – Putvi
    1 hour ago
















0















Several times has happened that the definition of mental disorders/ psychological-psychiatrist therapies/theories have been proven wrong. Yet they have been applied over people causing them problems and harm in their lives. Usually graduated psychologists/ psychiatrists are ignorant which is the supposed proof of these theories. They've been told they have been proven sometimes, sometimes they've been given some details, and they don't know they don't have a real basis behind them until it's massively accepted they are wrong. Personally, I see little to no responsibilities in them. In the other hand, governments and states promote these theories in secondary schools, they teach them and form professionals in national universities, and they hold the power to treat people in trials and to internate someone for being ill under these theories. Some other organizations, which I'm not very aware who they are, but I assume they might be colleges or agrupations of psychiatrists/psychologists regulate their professional's activities, and I assume they might be the ones giving the content to national universities for the formation of professionals under these theories. When one of these theories/therapies are proven wrong and have caused harm over people, who is the legal responsibility?



I assume there aren't many cases like this, but I make the parallelism with biological sciences. If an association or group produces a medicament which is proven harmful for people later, and that association teaches doctors to give this medicament to people, with the approval and fundings/places of national government created universities, it would be pretty much the same. Then, in the case stated in the topic question, who would be legally responsible for the application of these mainstream wrong psychological/psychiatrist therapies?










share|improve this question
























  • It kind of depends on the situation. The question is too broad.

    – Putvi
    1 hour ago














0












0








0








Several times has happened that the definition of mental disorders/ psychological-psychiatrist therapies/theories have been proven wrong. Yet they have been applied over people causing them problems and harm in their lives. Usually graduated psychologists/ psychiatrists are ignorant which is the supposed proof of these theories. They've been told they have been proven sometimes, sometimes they've been given some details, and they don't know they don't have a real basis behind them until it's massively accepted they are wrong. Personally, I see little to no responsibilities in them. In the other hand, governments and states promote these theories in secondary schools, they teach them and form professionals in national universities, and they hold the power to treat people in trials and to internate someone for being ill under these theories. Some other organizations, which I'm not very aware who they are, but I assume they might be colleges or agrupations of psychiatrists/psychologists regulate their professional's activities, and I assume they might be the ones giving the content to national universities for the formation of professionals under these theories. When one of these theories/therapies are proven wrong and have caused harm over people, who is the legal responsibility?



I assume there aren't many cases like this, but I make the parallelism with biological sciences. If an association or group produces a medicament which is proven harmful for people later, and that association teaches doctors to give this medicament to people, with the approval and fundings/places of national government created universities, it would be pretty much the same. Then, in the case stated in the topic question, who would be legally responsible for the application of these mainstream wrong psychological/psychiatrist therapies?










share|improve this question
















Several times has happened that the definition of mental disorders/ psychological-psychiatrist therapies/theories have been proven wrong. Yet they have been applied over people causing them problems and harm in their lives. Usually graduated psychologists/ psychiatrists are ignorant which is the supposed proof of these theories. They've been told they have been proven sometimes, sometimes they've been given some details, and they don't know they don't have a real basis behind them until it's massively accepted they are wrong. Personally, I see little to no responsibilities in them. In the other hand, governments and states promote these theories in secondary schools, they teach them and form professionals in national universities, and they hold the power to treat people in trials and to internate someone for being ill under these theories. Some other organizations, which I'm not very aware who they are, but I assume they might be colleges or agrupations of psychiatrists/psychologists regulate their professional's activities, and I assume they might be the ones giving the content to national universities for the formation of professionals under these theories. When one of these theories/therapies are proven wrong and have caused harm over people, who is the legal responsibility?



I assume there aren't many cases like this, but I make the parallelism with biological sciences. If an association or group produces a medicament which is proven harmful for people later, and that association teaches doctors to give this medicament to people, with the approval and fundings/places of national government created universities, it would be pretty much the same. Then, in the case stated in the topic question, who would be legally responsible for the application of these mainstream wrong psychological/psychiatrist therapies?







criminal-law






share|improve this question















share|improve this question













share|improve this question




share|improve this question








edited 2 mins ago









StephanS

53223




53223










asked 2 hours ago









PabloPablo

305214




305214












  • It kind of depends on the situation. The question is too broad.

    – Putvi
    1 hour ago


















  • It kind of depends on the situation. The question is too broad.

    – Putvi
    1 hour ago

















It kind of depends on the situation. The question is too broad.

– Putvi
1 hour ago






It kind of depends on the situation. The question is too broad.

– Putvi
1 hour ago











1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















0














Your question is almost too general to answer, but the basic answer is; being wrong is not a crime. Negligence is, but applying generally accepted medical diagnoses and treatments is not negligent. Malpractice is also a crime (or at least reason to suspend a medical licence); but evolving a theory based on experimental evidence, submitting it to peer review and having it generally accepted, and then later seeing it superseded by another theory is not malpractice, it is the normal scientific method.



And no definition has ever been "proven wrong" since a definition, like an axiom, is neither verifiable nor falsifiable. The definitions of disorders vary betweeen countries, and most certainly change over time, but that is not because of any discovery or proof.






share|improve this answer























  • Negligence is not generally a crime, so you might want to dial that back a bit.

    – user6726
    18 mins ago











  • TBF the question is way to broad to just answer like this. @user6726

    – Putvi
    48 secs ago











Your Answer








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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









0














Your question is almost too general to answer, but the basic answer is; being wrong is not a crime. Negligence is, but applying generally accepted medical diagnoses and treatments is not negligent. Malpractice is also a crime (or at least reason to suspend a medical licence); but evolving a theory based on experimental evidence, submitting it to peer review and having it generally accepted, and then later seeing it superseded by another theory is not malpractice, it is the normal scientific method.



And no definition has ever been "proven wrong" since a definition, like an axiom, is neither verifiable nor falsifiable. The definitions of disorders vary betweeen countries, and most certainly change over time, but that is not because of any discovery or proof.






share|improve this answer























  • Negligence is not generally a crime, so you might want to dial that back a bit.

    – user6726
    18 mins ago











  • TBF the question is way to broad to just answer like this. @user6726

    – Putvi
    48 secs ago















0














Your question is almost too general to answer, but the basic answer is; being wrong is not a crime. Negligence is, but applying generally accepted medical diagnoses and treatments is not negligent. Malpractice is also a crime (or at least reason to suspend a medical licence); but evolving a theory based on experimental evidence, submitting it to peer review and having it generally accepted, and then later seeing it superseded by another theory is not malpractice, it is the normal scientific method.



And no definition has ever been "proven wrong" since a definition, like an axiom, is neither verifiable nor falsifiable. The definitions of disorders vary betweeen countries, and most certainly change over time, but that is not because of any discovery or proof.






share|improve this answer























  • Negligence is not generally a crime, so you might want to dial that back a bit.

    – user6726
    18 mins ago











  • TBF the question is way to broad to just answer like this. @user6726

    – Putvi
    48 secs ago













0












0








0







Your question is almost too general to answer, but the basic answer is; being wrong is not a crime. Negligence is, but applying generally accepted medical diagnoses and treatments is not negligent. Malpractice is also a crime (or at least reason to suspend a medical licence); but evolving a theory based on experimental evidence, submitting it to peer review and having it generally accepted, and then later seeing it superseded by another theory is not malpractice, it is the normal scientific method.



And no definition has ever been "proven wrong" since a definition, like an axiom, is neither verifiable nor falsifiable. The definitions of disorders vary betweeen countries, and most certainly change over time, but that is not because of any discovery or proof.






share|improve this answer













Your question is almost too general to answer, but the basic answer is; being wrong is not a crime. Negligence is, but applying generally accepted medical diagnoses and treatments is not negligent. Malpractice is also a crime (or at least reason to suspend a medical licence); but evolving a theory based on experimental evidence, submitting it to peer review and having it generally accepted, and then later seeing it superseded by another theory is not malpractice, it is the normal scientific method.



And no definition has ever been "proven wrong" since a definition, like an axiom, is neither verifiable nor falsifiable. The definitions of disorders vary betweeen countries, and most certainly change over time, but that is not because of any discovery or proof.







share|improve this answer












share|improve this answer



share|improve this answer










answered 45 mins ago









Tim LymingtonTim Lymington

2,9711627




2,9711627












  • Negligence is not generally a crime, so you might want to dial that back a bit.

    – user6726
    18 mins ago











  • TBF the question is way to broad to just answer like this. @user6726

    – Putvi
    48 secs ago

















  • Negligence is not generally a crime, so you might want to dial that back a bit.

    – user6726
    18 mins ago











  • TBF the question is way to broad to just answer like this. @user6726

    – Putvi
    48 secs ago
















Negligence is not generally a crime, so you might want to dial that back a bit.

– user6726
18 mins ago





Negligence is not generally a crime, so you might want to dial that back a bit.

– user6726
18 mins ago













TBF the question is way to broad to just answer like this. @user6726

– Putvi
48 secs ago





TBF the question is way to broad to just answer like this. @user6726

– Putvi
48 secs ago

















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