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Why is law of evidence nonchalantlly translated in the Greek language as law of proof instead of law of indications?
How does the US legal system prevent successful evidence tampering from reducing total punishment?What the prosecutor need to proof to proof blasphemy case in Ahok caseCan DNA on drugs be used as evidence even if the drugs weren't in anyone's possession at the time it was found? (Canada)Why would a Canadian Crown Prosecutor continue with a proceeding with no evidence?What is involved (other than financial + evidence aspects) in bringing a private prosecution in the UK?Why does double jeopardy apply even when the acquittal was due to insufficiency of evidence?Why was video evidence released after the trial ended in the Daniel Shaver murder case?Why did the DA choose to prosecute the mother instead of the bully?Can an email to a 3rd party be admitted as an evidence in the court? (Family Law UK)If police collected evidence based off of a call they suspected, but couldn't prove, was fruadulant would the evidence be upheld?
Απόδειξη(From + Show) and Ένδειξη(In or With + Show) are the main choices Ανάδειξη(Above or Again + Show), Επίδειξη(To + Show), Υπόδειξη(Under or Because + Show), Κατάδειξη(Against + Show) are the other ones.
I am much more confortable with a judge deciding based on indications that can make mistakes and therefore is also responsible for them than a philosophically and semantically infallible omniscient judge.
Is it not a problem to consider any affirmation in a court a proof?
If 2 opposing affirmations are made in a court and we consider both proofs what happens with logic? We have a contradiction. A is true, B is also true but A¬B.
A proof does not have power. Evidence and indication have power. How intensely they point somewhere.
In mathematics, statistics, physics, economics, chemistry, engineering etc we have proofs only because he have the raw materials to produce the proofs.
We have axioms, definitions, hypotheses(Let A) and they all have a philosophical cost they cannot be proven and we must incur these costs if we want to prove anything else.
How can we call Law of Evidence Law of Proof?
criminal-law contract-law international evidence rules-of-court
New contributor
add a comment |
Απόδειξη(From + Show) and Ένδειξη(In or With + Show) are the main choices Ανάδειξη(Above or Again + Show), Επίδειξη(To + Show), Υπόδειξη(Under or Because + Show), Κατάδειξη(Against + Show) are the other ones.
I am much more confortable with a judge deciding based on indications that can make mistakes and therefore is also responsible for them than a philosophically and semantically infallible omniscient judge.
Is it not a problem to consider any affirmation in a court a proof?
If 2 opposing affirmations are made in a court and we consider both proofs what happens with logic? We have a contradiction. A is true, B is also true but A¬B.
A proof does not have power. Evidence and indication have power. How intensely they point somewhere.
In mathematics, statistics, physics, economics, chemistry, engineering etc we have proofs only because he have the raw materials to produce the proofs.
We have axioms, definitions, hypotheses(Let A) and they all have a philosophical cost they cannot be proven and we must incur these costs if we want to prove anything else.
How can we call Law of Evidence Law of Proof?
criminal-law contract-law international evidence rules-of-court
New contributor
add a comment |
Απόδειξη(From + Show) and Ένδειξη(In or With + Show) are the main choices Ανάδειξη(Above or Again + Show), Επίδειξη(To + Show), Υπόδειξη(Under or Because + Show), Κατάδειξη(Against + Show) are the other ones.
I am much more confortable with a judge deciding based on indications that can make mistakes and therefore is also responsible for them than a philosophically and semantically infallible omniscient judge.
Is it not a problem to consider any affirmation in a court a proof?
If 2 opposing affirmations are made in a court and we consider both proofs what happens with logic? We have a contradiction. A is true, B is also true but A¬B.
A proof does not have power. Evidence and indication have power. How intensely they point somewhere.
In mathematics, statistics, physics, economics, chemistry, engineering etc we have proofs only because he have the raw materials to produce the proofs.
We have axioms, definitions, hypotheses(Let A) and they all have a philosophical cost they cannot be proven and we must incur these costs if we want to prove anything else.
How can we call Law of Evidence Law of Proof?
criminal-law contract-law international evidence rules-of-court
New contributor
Απόδειξη(From + Show) and Ένδειξη(In or With + Show) are the main choices Ανάδειξη(Above or Again + Show), Επίδειξη(To + Show), Υπόδειξη(Under or Because + Show), Κατάδειξη(Against + Show) are the other ones.
I am much more confortable with a judge deciding based on indications that can make mistakes and therefore is also responsible for them than a philosophically and semantically infallible omniscient judge.
Is it not a problem to consider any affirmation in a court a proof?
If 2 opposing affirmations are made in a court and we consider both proofs what happens with logic? We have a contradiction. A is true, B is also true but A¬B.
A proof does not have power. Evidence and indication have power. How intensely they point somewhere.
In mathematics, statistics, physics, economics, chemistry, engineering etc we have proofs only because he have the raw materials to produce the proofs.
We have axioms, definitions, hypotheses(Let A) and they all have a philosophical cost they cannot be proven and we must incur these costs if we want to prove anything else.
How can we call Law of Evidence Law of Proof?
criminal-law contract-law international evidence rules-of-court
criminal-law contract-law international evidence rules-of-court
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New contributor
New contributor
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George NtoulosGeorge Ntoulos
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