Intuitive explanation of the rank-nullity theorem Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 23:30UTC (7:30pm US/Eastern)Proof of rank nullity theoremDoes the rank-nullity theorem hold for infinite dimensional $V$?rank-nullity theorem clarificationRank-nullity theorem for free $mathbb Z$-modulesProving that $mathrmrank(T) = mathrmrank(L_A)$ and $mathrmnullity(T) = mathrmnullity(L_A)$, where $A=[T]_beta^gamma$.Find the rank and nullity of the following matrixQuestion on proof for why $operatornamerank(T) = operatornamerank(LA)$Question about rank-nullity theoremRank nullity theorem -bijectionsome confusion in Rank nullity theorem.
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Intuitive explanation of the rank-nullity theorem
Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 23:30UTC (7:30pm US/Eastern)Proof of rank nullity theoremDoes the rank-nullity theorem hold for infinite dimensional $V$?rank-nullity theorem clarificationRank-nullity theorem for free $mathbb Z$-modulesProving that $mathrmrank(T) = mathrmrank(L_A)$ and $mathrmnullity(T) = mathrmnullity(L_A)$, where $A=[T]_beta^gamma$.Find the rank and nullity of the following matrixQuestion on proof for why $operatornamerank(T) = operatornamerank(LA)$Question about rank-nullity theoremRank nullity theorem -bijectionsome confusion in Rank nullity theorem.
$begingroup$
I understand that if you have a linear transformation from $U$ to $V$ with, say, $operatornamedim U = 3$, $operatornamerank T = 2$, then the set of points that map onto the $0$ vector will lie along a straight line, and therefore $operatornamenullityT = 1$.
Can anyone offer an intuitive explanation of why this is always true?
linear-algebra matrix-rank
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I understand that if you have a linear transformation from $U$ to $V$ with, say, $operatornamedim U = 3$, $operatornamerank T = 2$, then the set of points that map onto the $0$ vector will lie along a straight line, and therefore $operatornamenullityT = 1$.
Can anyone offer an intuitive explanation of why this is always true?
linear-algebra matrix-rank
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Fix a basis $(b_1,...,b_k,...,b_n)$ of $V$ such that $(b_1,...,b_k)$ is a basis of $ker(f)$. Then the remaining basis vectors $b_k+1,...,b_n$ have linearly independent images $f(b_k+1),...,f(b_n)$. Since the other basis vectors get mapped to $0$, these alone must span $mathrmim(f)$, hence form a basis of it and $mathrmrank(f)=n-k$. The result follows. I'm not sure if this is particularly illuminating though.
$endgroup$
– Thorgott
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
This is similar to the proof that was given in my linear algebra module, I think I'm looking for a more geometric explanation
$endgroup$
– Joseph
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
Very loosely, I think of the rank-nullity theorem as saying: What you end up with is what you start with minus what you lose. "What you end up with" being the rank, "what you start with" being the dimension of the domain space, and "what you lose" being the nullity.
$endgroup$
– Daniel Schepler
3 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I understand that if you have a linear transformation from $U$ to $V$ with, say, $operatornamedim U = 3$, $operatornamerank T = 2$, then the set of points that map onto the $0$ vector will lie along a straight line, and therefore $operatornamenullityT = 1$.
Can anyone offer an intuitive explanation of why this is always true?
linear-algebra matrix-rank
$endgroup$
I understand that if you have a linear transformation from $U$ to $V$ with, say, $operatornamedim U = 3$, $operatornamerank T = 2$, then the set of points that map onto the $0$ vector will lie along a straight line, and therefore $operatornamenullityT = 1$.
Can anyone offer an intuitive explanation of why this is always true?
linear-algebra matrix-rank
linear-algebra matrix-rank
edited 1 hour ago
Alex Ortiz
11.6k21442
11.6k21442
asked 4 hours ago
JosephJoseph
475
475
1
$begingroup$
Fix a basis $(b_1,...,b_k,...,b_n)$ of $V$ such that $(b_1,...,b_k)$ is a basis of $ker(f)$. Then the remaining basis vectors $b_k+1,...,b_n$ have linearly independent images $f(b_k+1),...,f(b_n)$. Since the other basis vectors get mapped to $0$, these alone must span $mathrmim(f)$, hence form a basis of it and $mathrmrank(f)=n-k$. The result follows. I'm not sure if this is particularly illuminating though.
$endgroup$
– Thorgott
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
This is similar to the proof that was given in my linear algebra module, I think I'm looking for a more geometric explanation
$endgroup$
– Joseph
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
Very loosely, I think of the rank-nullity theorem as saying: What you end up with is what you start with minus what you lose. "What you end up with" being the rank, "what you start with" being the dimension of the domain space, and "what you lose" being the nullity.
$endgroup$
– Daniel Schepler
3 hours ago
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
Fix a basis $(b_1,...,b_k,...,b_n)$ of $V$ such that $(b_1,...,b_k)$ is a basis of $ker(f)$. Then the remaining basis vectors $b_k+1,...,b_n$ have linearly independent images $f(b_k+1),...,f(b_n)$. Since the other basis vectors get mapped to $0$, these alone must span $mathrmim(f)$, hence form a basis of it and $mathrmrank(f)=n-k$. The result follows. I'm not sure if this is particularly illuminating though.
$endgroup$
– Thorgott
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
This is similar to the proof that was given in my linear algebra module, I think I'm looking for a more geometric explanation
$endgroup$
– Joseph
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
Very loosely, I think of the rank-nullity theorem as saying: What you end up with is what you start with minus what you lose. "What you end up with" being the rank, "what you start with" being the dimension of the domain space, and "what you lose" being the nullity.
$endgroup$
– Daniel Schepler
3 hours ago
1
1
$begingroup$
Fix a basis $(b_1,...,b_k,...,b_n)$ of $V$ such that $(b_1,...,b_k)$ is a basis of $ker(f)$. Then the remaining basis vectors $b_k+1,...,b_n$ have linearly independent images $f(b_k+1),...,f(b_n)$. Since the other basis vectors get mapped to $0$, these alone must span $mathrmim(f)$, hence form a basis of it and $mathrmrank(f)=n-k$. The result follows. I'm not sure if this is particularly illuminating though.
$endgroup$
– Thorgott
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
Fix a basis $(b_1,...,b_k,...,b_n)$ of $V$ such that $(b_1,...,b_k)$ is a basis of $ker(f)$. Then the remaining basis vectors $b_k+1,...,b_n$ have linearly independent images $f(b_k+1),...,f(b_n)$. Since the other basis vectors get mapped to $0$, these alone must span $mathrmim(f)$, hence form a basis of it and $mathrmrank(f)=n-k$. The result follows. I'm not sure if this is particularly illuminating though.
$endgroup$
– Thorgott
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
This is similar to the proof that was given in my linear algebra module, I think I'm looking for a more geometric explanation
$endgroup$
– Joseph
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
This is similar to the proof that was given in my linear algebra module, I think I'm looking for a more geometric explanation
$endgroup$
– Joseph
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
Very loosely, I think of the rank-nullity theorem as saying: What you end up with is what you start with minus what you lose. "What you end up with" being the rank, "what you start with" being the dimension of the domain space, and "what you lose" being the nullity.
$endgroup$
– Daniel Schepler
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
Very loosely, I think of the rank-nullity theorem as saying: What you end up with is what you start with minus what you lose. "What you end up with" being the rank, "what you start with" being the dimension of the domain space, and "what you lose" being the nullity.
$endgroup$
– Daniel Schepler
3 hours ago
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
I like this question. Let me take a shot at it. I think it's best to think of the rank as the dimension of the range (or image).
Consider first a nonsingular transformation $T$ on an $n-$dimensional vector space. We know that the rank is $n$ and the nullity $0$, so the theorem holds in this case. $T$ maps a basis to a basis. Suppose we modify $T$ by mapping the first vector in the basis to $0$. Call the new transformation $T_1$. Clearly, the nullity of $T$ is $1$. What is the rank? In the image of $T$ one of the basis vectors collapses to $0$ when we go to the image of $T_1,$ so the image of $T_1$ has dimension $n-1$ and the theorem hold in this case.
Now continue the process. If $T_2$ is the same as $T_1$ except that the second basis vector is mapped to $0$, then the nullity will be $2$, and the image will be of dimension $n-2$, because again, one dimension collapses.
Of course, we can continue until we arrive at $T_n=0$ and the theorem always holds.
I hope this makes intuitive sense to you.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I like saulspatz' answer because it is very hands-on. I would like to offer another perspective, one based on the fact that linear transformations are characterized by their ranks, up to choice of bases in domain and codomain. The key is in this proposition:
Proposition. Suppose $Tcolon Vto W$ is a linear transformation with $dim V = n$ and $dim W = m$ and $operatornamerank T = r leqslant m$. Then there are bases $v_1,dots,v_n$ for $V$ and $w_1,dots,w_m$ for $W$ such that the matrix for $T$ with respect to these bases is
$$
mathcal M(T,v_1,dots,v_n,w_1,dots,w_m) = beginpmatrix I_rtimes r & 0_rtimes n-r \ 0_m-rtimes r & 0_m-rtimes n-rendpmatrix,
$$
where $I_rtimes r$ is the $rtimes r$ identity matrix, and the various $0_asttimesast$ are the zero matrices of the corresponding dimensions. As a quick corollary of the proposition, we can read off of the matrix for $T$ in these bases that
beginalign*
operatornamerankT &stackreltextdef= dim operatornameimageT = r, \
operatornamenullityT &stackreltextdef= dim ker T = n-r,
endalign*
and hence gain the rank-nullity theorem:
$$
dim V = n = r + (n-r) = operatornamerankT + operatornamenullityT.
$$
For a quick proof of the proposition, keeping things as "coarse" as possible for intuition's sake, because the rank of $T$ is $r$, take vectors $v_1,dots,v_r$ in $V$ such that $w_1 = T(v_1),dots,w_r = T(v_r)$ span the image of $T$. Extend $v_1,dots,v_r$ to a basis $v_1,dots,v_r,v_r+1,dots,v_n$ for $V$ and $w_1,dots,w_r$ to a basis $w_1,dots,w_r,w_r+1,dots,w_m$ for $W$. With respect to these bases, we quickly determine
$$
mathcal M(T,v_1,dots,v_n,w_1,dots,w_m) = beginpmatrix I_rtimes r & ast \ 0_m-rtimes r & astendpmatrix.
$$
Because the rank of $T$ is $r$, and the first $r$ columns of the matrix for $T$ are linearly independent, we determine that (possibly after some row and column operations) the two $ast$'s in the above matrix for $T$ have to be the zero matrices of appropriate dimensions, hence the proposition.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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2 Answers
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$begingroup$
I like this question. Let me take a shot at it. I think it's best to think of the rank as the dimension of the range (or image).
Consider first a nonsingular transformation $T$ on an $n-$dimensional vector space. We know that the rank is $n$ and the nullity $0$, so the theorem holds in this case. $T$ maps a basis to a basis. Suppose we modify $T$ by mapping the first vector in the basis to $0$. Call the new transformation $T_1$. Clearly, the nullity of $T$ is $1$. What is the rank? In the image of $T$ one of the basis vectors collapses to $0$ when we go to the image of $T_1,$ so the image of $T_1$ has dimension $n-1$ and the theorem hold in this case.
Now continue the process. If $T_2$ is the same as $T_1$ except that the second basis vector is mapped to $0$, then the nullity will be $2$, and the image will be of dimension $n-2$, because again, one dimension collapses.
Of course, we can continue until we arrive at $T_n=0$ and the theorem always holds.
I hope this makes intuitive sense to you.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I like this question. Let me take a shot at it. I think it's best to think of the rank as the dimension of the range (or image).
Consider first a nonsingular transformation $T$ on an $n-$dimensional vector space. We know that the rank is $n$ and the nullity $0$, so the theorem holds in this case. $T$ maps a basis to a basis. Suppose we modify $T$ by mapping the first vector in the basis to $0$. Call the new transformation $T_1$. Clearly, the nullity of $T$ is $1$. What is the rank? In the image of $T$ one of the basis vectors collapses to $0$ when we go to the image of $T_1,$ so the image of $T_1$ has dimension $n-1$ and the theorem hold in this case.
Now continue the process. If $T_2$ is the same as $T_1$ except that the second basis vector is mapped to $0$, then the nullity will be $2$, and the image will be of dimension $n-2$, because again, one dimension collapses.
Of course, we can continue until we arrive at $T_n=0$ and the theorem always holds.
I hope this makes intuitive sense to you.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I like this question. Let me take a shot at it. I think it's best to think of the rank as the dimension of the range (or image).
Consider first a nonsingular transformation $T$ on an $n-$dimensional vector space. We know that the rank is $n$ and the nullity $0$, so the theorem holds in this case. $T$ maps a basis to a basis. Suppose we modify $T$ by mapping the first vector in the basis to $0$. Call the new transformation $T_1$. Clearly, the nullity of $T$ is $1$. What is the rank? In the image of $T$ one of the basis vectors collapses to $0$ when we go to the image of $T_1,$ so the image of $T_1$ has dimension $n-1$ and the theorem hold in this case.
Now continue the process. If $T_2$ is the same as $T_1$ except that the second basis vector is mapped to $0$, then the nullity will be $2$, and the image will be of dimension $n-2$, because again, one dimension collapses.
Of course, we can continue until we arrive at $T_n=0$ and the theorem always holds.
I hope this makes intuitive sense to you.
$endgroup$
I like this question. Let me take a shot at it. I think it's best to think of the rank as the dimension of the range (or image).
Consider first a nonsingular transformation $T$ on an $n-$dimensional vector space. We know that the rank is $n$ and the nullity $0$, so the theorem holds in this case. $T$ maps a basis to a basis. Suppose we modify $T$ by mapping the first vector in the basis to $0$. Call the new transformation $T_1$. Clearly, the nullity of $T$ is $1$. What is the rank? In the image of $T$ one of the basis vectors collapses to $0$ when we go to the image of $T_1,$ so the image of $T_1$ has dimension $n-1$ and the theorem hold in this case.
Now continue the process. If $T_2$ is the same as $T_1$ except that the second basis vector is mapped to $0$, then the nullity will be $2$, and the image will be of dimension $n-2$, because again, one dimension collapses.
Of course, we can continue until we arrive at $T_n=0$ and the theorem always holds.
I hope this makes intuitive sense to you.
answered 3 hours ago
saulspatzsaulspatz
17.6k31536
17.6k31536
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I like saulspatz' answer because it is very hands-on. I would like to offer another perspective, one based on the fact that linear transformations are characterized by their ranks, up to choice of bases in domain and codomain. The key is in this proposition:
Proposition. Suppose $Tcolon Vto W$ is a linear transformation with $dim V = n$ and $dim W = m$ and $operatornamerank T = r leqslant m$. Then there are bases $v_1,dots,v_n$ for $V$ and $w_1,dots,w_m$ for $W$ such that the matrix for $T$ with respect to these bases is
$$
mathcal M(T,v_1,dots,v_n,w_1,dots,w_m) = beginpmatrix I_rtimes r & 0_rtimes n-r \ 0_m-rtimes r & 0_m-rtimes n-rendpmatrix,
$$
where $I_rtimes r$ is the $rtimes r$ identity matrix, and the various $0_asttimesast$ are the zero matrices of the corresponding dimensions. As a quick corollary of the proposition, we can read off of the matrix for $T$ in these bases that
beginalign*
operatornamerankT &stackreltextdef= dim operatornameimageT = r, \
operatornamenullityT &stackreltextdef= dim ker T = n-r,
endalign*
and hence gain the rank-nullity theorem:
$$
dim V = n = r + (n-r) = operatornamerankT + operatornamenullityT.
$$
For a quick proof of the proposition, keeping things as "coarse" as possible for intuition's sake, because the rank of $T$ is $r$, take vectors $v_1,dots,v_r$ in $V$ such that $w_1 = T(v_1),dots,w_r = T(v_r)$ span the image of $T$. Extend $v_1,dots,v_r$ to a basis $v_1,dots,v_r,v_r+1,dots,v_n$ for $V$ and $w_1,dots,w_r$ to a basis $w_1,dots,w_r,w_r+1,dots,w_m$ for $W$. With respect to these bases, we quickly determine
$$
mathcal M(T,v_1,dots,v_n,w_1,dots,w_m) = beginpmatrix I_rtimes r & ast \ 0_m-rtimes r & astendpmatrix.
$$
Because the rank of $T$ is $r$, and the first $r$ columns of the matrix for $T$ are linearly independent, we determine that (possibly after some row and column operations) the two $ast$'s in the above matrix for $T$ have to be the zero matrices of appropriate dimensions, hence the proposition.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I like saulspatz' answer because it is very hands-on. I would like to offer another perspective, one based on the fact that linear transformations are characterized by their ranks, up to choice of bases in domain and codomain. The key is in this proposition:
Proposition. Suppose $Tcolon Vto W$ is a linear transformation with $dim V = n$ and $dim W = m$ and $operatornamerank T = r leqslant m$. Then there are bases $v_1,dots,v_n$ for $V$ and $w_1,dots,w_m$ for $W$ such that the matrix for $T$ with respect to these bases is
$$
mathcal M(T,v_1,dots,v_n,w_1,dots,w_m) = beginpmatrix I_rtimes r & 0_rtimes n-r \ 0_m-rtimes r & 0_m-rtimes n-rendpmatrix,
$$
where $I_rtimes r$ is the $rtimes r$ identity matrix, and the various $0_asttimesast$ are the zero matrices of the corresponding dimensions. As a quick corollary of the proposition, we can read off of the matrix for $T$ in these bases that
beginalign*
operatornamerankT &stackreltextdef= dim operatornameimageT = r, \
operatornamenullityT &stackreltextdef= dim ker T = n-r,
endalign*
and hence gain the rank-nullity theorem:
$$
dim V = n = r + (n-r) = operatornamerankT + operatornamenullityT.
$$
For a quick proof of the proposition, keeping things as "coarse" as possible for intuition's sake, because the rank of $T$ is $r$, take vectors $v_1,dots,v_r$ in $V$ such that $w_1 = T(v_1),dots,w_r = T(v_r)$ span the image of $T$. Extend $v_1,dots,v_r$ to a basis $v_1,dots,v_r,v_r+1,dots,v_n$ for $V$ and $w_1,dots,w_r$ to a basis $w_1,dots,w_r,w_r+1,dots,w_m$ for $W$. With respect to these bases, we quickly determine
$$
mathcal M(T,v_1,dots,v_n,w_1,dots,w_m) = beginpmatrix I_rtimes r & ast \ 0_m-rtimes r & astendpmatrix.
$$
Because the rank of $T$ is $r$, and the first $r$ columns of the matrix for $T$ are linearly independent, we determine that (possibly after some row and column operations) the two $ast$'s in the above matrix for $T$ have to be the zero matrices of appropriate dimensions, hence the proposition.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I like saulspatz' answer because it is very hands-on. I would like to offer another perspective, one based on the fact that linear transformations are characterized by their ranks, up to choice of bases in domain and codomain. The key is in this proposition:
Proposition. Suppose $Tcolon Vto W$ is a linear transformation with $dim V = n$ and $dim W = m$ and $operatornamerank T = r leqslant m$. Then there are bases $v_1,dots,v_n$ for $V$ and $w_1,dots,w_m$ for $W$ such that the matrix for $T$ with respect to these bases is
$$
mathcal M(T,v_1,dots,v_n,w_1,dots,w_m) = beginpmatrix I_rtimes r & 0_rtimes n-r \ 0_m-rtimes r & 0_m-rtimes n-rendpmatrix,
$$
where $I_rtimes r$ is the $rtimes r$ identity matrix, and the various $0_asttimesast$ are the zero matrices of the corresponding dimensions. As a quick corollary of the proposition, we can read off of the matrix for $T$ in these bases that
beginalign*
operatornamerankT &stackreltextdef= dim operatornameimageT = r, \
operatornamenullityT &stackreltextdef= dim ker T = n-r,
endalign*
and hence gain the rank-nullity theorem:
$$
dim V = n = r + (n-r) = operatornamerankT + operatornamenullityT.
$$
For a quick proof of the proposition, keeping things as "coarse" as possible for intuition's sake, because the rank of $T$ is $r$, take vectors $v_1,dots,v_r$ in $V$ such that $w_1 = T(v_1),dots,w_r = T(v_r)$ span the image of $T$. Extend $v_1,dots,v_r$ to a basis $v_1,dots,v_r,v_r+1,dots,v_n$ for $V$ and $w_1,dots,w_r$ to a basis $w_1,dots,w_r,w_r+1,dots,w_m$ for $W$. With respect to these bases, we quickly determine
$$
mathcal M(T,v_1,dots,v_n,w_1,dots,w_m) = beginpmatrix I_rtimes r & ast \ 0_m-rtimes r & astendpmatrix.
$$
Because the rank of $T$ is $r$, and the first $r$ columns of the matrix for $T$ are linearly independent, we determine that (possibly after some row and column operations) the two $ast$'s in the above matrix for $T$ have to be the zero matrices of appropriate dimensions, hence the proposition.
$endgroup$
I like saulspatz' answer because it is very hands-on. I would like to offer another perspective, one based on the fact that linear transformations are characterized by their ranks, up to choice of bases in domain and codomain. The key is in this proposition:
Proposition. Suppose $Tcolon Vto W$ is a linear transformation with $dim V = n$ and $dim W = m$ and $operatornamerank T = r leqslant m$. Then there are bases $v_1,dots,v_n$ for $V$ and $w_1,dots,w_m$ for $W$ such that the matrix for $T$ with respect to these bases is
$$
mathcal M(T,v_1,dots,v_n,w_1,dots,w_m) = beginpmatrix I_rtimes r & 0_rtimes n-r \ 0_m-rtimes r & 0_m-rtimes n-rendpmatrix,
$$
where $I_rtimes r$ is the $rtimes r$ identity matrix, and the various $0_asttimesast$ are the zero matrices of the corresponding dimensions. As a quick corollary of the proposition, we can read off of the matrix for $T$ in these bases that
beginalign*
operatornamerankT &stackreltextdef= dim operatornameimageT = r, \
operatornamenullityT &stackreltextdef= dim ker T = n-r,
endalign*
and hence gain the rank-nullity theorem:
$$
dim V = n = r + (n-r) = operatornamerankT + operatornamenullityT.
$$
For a quick proof of the proposition, keeping things as "coarse" as possible for intuition's sake, because the rank of $T$ is $r$, take vectors $v_1,dots,v_r$ in $V$ such that $w_1 = T(v_1),dots,w_r = T(v_r)$ span the image of $T$. Extend $v_1,dots,v_r$ to a basis $v_1,dots,v_r,v_r+1,dots,v_n$ for $V$ and $w_1,dots,w_r$ to a basis $w_1,dots,w_r,w_r+1,dots,w_m$ for $W$. With respect to these bases, we quickly determine
$$
mathcal M(T,v_1,dots,v_n,w_1,dots,w_m) = beginpmatrix I_rtimes r & ast \ 0_m-rtimes r & astendpmatrix.
$$
Because the rank of $T$ is $r$, and the first $r$ columns of the matrix for $T$ are linearly independent, we determine that (possibly after some row and column operations) the two $ast$'s in the above matrix for $T$ have to be the zero matrices of appropriate dimensions, hence the proposition.
edited 1 hour ago
answered 3 hours ago
Alex OrtizAlex Ortiz
11.6k21442
11.6k21442
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1
$begingroup$
Fix a basis $(b_1,...,b_k,...,b_n)$ of $V$ such that $(b_1,...,b_k)$ is a basis of $ker(f)$. Then the remaining basis vectors $b_k+1,...,b_n$ have linearly independent images $f(b_k+1),...,f(b_n)$. Since the other basis vectors get mapped to $0$, these alone must span $mathrmim(f)$, hence form a basis of it and $mathrmrank(f)=n-k$. The result follows. I'm not sure if this is particularly illuminating though.
$endgroup$
– Thorgott
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
This is similar to the proof that was given in my linear algebra module, I think I'm looking for a more geometric explanation
$endgroup$
– Joseph
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
Very loosely, I think of the rank-nullity theorem as saying: What you end up with is what you start with minus what you lose. "What you end up with" being the rank, "what you start with" being the dimension of the domain space, and "what you lose" being the nullity.
$endgroup$
– Daniel Schepler
3 hours ago